Texas Waste Water Treatment Final Exam Review

Take the test..... duh....... Study questions for the class C waste water license. Info source: TEEX infrastructure training & safety institute waste water treatment resource book Appendix G 2023.
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1. The purpose of the microorganisms that are present in biological treatment processes is to ________.
In secondary treatment, microscopic living creatures called microorganisms remove additional contaminants from the wastewater. Conditions are purposely created that favor the growth and reproduction of treatment microorganisms. These organisms trap and consume waste, using contaminants in wastewater as their food supply. After these organisms are later removed as biological solids, the wastewater will be less contaminated. NOTE: The purpose of the microorganisms.... is to BE the biology in "biological treatment" they eat things and turn them into other things that are more easily removed than the original contaminants.
provide the operator with pets
add gases to the treatment plant
remove the bacteria in raw wastewater
trap and consume contaminants in wastewater
2. The extent of treatment required for a waste discharge depends on ________.
National, state, and local governments set the standards for treatment. These requirements depend on treatment plant location, the water quality standards set for the receiving stream, and the amount and final use of the effluent. Different treatment plants have different requirements. NOTE: the idea is not to make fresh drinking water but to process waste water to the point that it matches or exceeds the quality of the water way it will be discharged into.
the final use of the sludge
what the community can afford
the treatment plant disinfection method
water quality standards set for the receiving stream
3. Which type of activated sludge process must have primary clarification?
See Table 8.10: Conventional Activated Sludge for details. complete mix and contact stabilization may or may not use primary clarification. and extended air does not use it at all.
Extended air
Conventional
Complete Mix
Contact Stabilization
4. Whoever violates any part of the ________ or any permit or order of the TCEQ can be fined up to $25,000 per day per violation.
If the TCEQ finds that a violation of the Water Code or of a TCEQ rule, permit, or order occurred, the agency may issue a conclusive report and recommend a penalty (usually a TCEQ administrative penalty). The TCEQ may assess administrative penalties up to $25,000 per day for each violation.
water code
wastewater code
40 CFR Part 403
regulatory guidance
5. Septic wastewater ________.
Septic wastewater is a dark color, has a disagreeable odor, and contains no DO. The floating material is hard to see, and gas bubbles are seen rising to the surface. The change from fresh to septic is caused by bacterial action, as anaerobic bacteria consume organic materials and produce organic acids and odorous gases.
is gray with a slight fecal order
is black and has very little odor
has dissolved oxygen present with visible floating solids
is the result of bacterial decomposition in the absence of oxygen
6. BOD is a measure of ________.
Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD, or specifically BOD5 when referring to the test) is the quantity of dissolved oxygen, expressed as milligrams per liter, required (depleted or used up) to partially stabilize the decomposable organic matter in a waste stream by chemical and biological action over 5 day period of time at 20°C.
algae population
amount of DO present
chemical oxygen demand
amount of oxygen used up
7. Too high a velocity in a grit chamber can result in ________.
If the velocity is too high, the grit will be carried over into the primary clarifier; if the velocity is too low, some suspended organic solids may settle out with the grit and become septic in the chamber.
septic wastewater
increase in volatile solids
settling of dissolved solids
excess grit in the primary clarifier
8. The moisture content of sludge from a primary clarifier should be which of the following?
while this IS a question in module 5 review the following sentence does not appear until module 11. "Primary sludge has a fecal odor and is from 94% to 96% moisture." Module 5 has only this to say "The dry weight solids content (of primary sludge) is 4% to 6%..."
4%–6%
90%–91%
94%–96%
None of the above
9. Bacteria may be classified by which of the following?
Bacteria, being very small and indistinct, are difficult to identify. They are often put into categories according to size and shape, oxygen needs, temperature requirements, food needs (metabolism), and the by-products they produce.
Shape
Oxygen needs
Temperature and metabolism
All of the above
10. Which type of bacteria adapts best to changing environmental oxygen conditions?
Facultative bacteria are microorganisms that can use dissolved oxygen (DO) OR oxygen obtained from food materials such as sulfate or nitrate ions, and some can respire through glycolysis. These bacteria can live under aerobic, anoxic, or anaerobic conditions.
Aerobic
Anaerobic
Facultative
Pathogenic
11. A contact stabilization activated sludge plant has a fast settling sludge and high amounts of pin floc leaving the clarifier. One way to correct this problem is to ________.
"Fast settling sludge and high amounts of pin floc leaving the clarifier" indicates old sludge that has been more than sufficiently processed staying in the system. wasting is how we get rid of the stuff we are done with before final dewatering, stabilization, and disposal. the question seems to be specifically referencing Table 8.19: Troubleshooting Guide for Activated Sludge Systems: Secondary Clarifier (Continued) which lists this as the proper corrective action: "Check F/M, MCRT, or sludge age and increase wasting rates by no more than 10% per day to return to optimum conditions."
reduce wasting rates
increase the RAS flow
increase the sludge age by wasting less
increase the F/M ratio by wasting more
12. Testing of mixed liquor indicates the MLSS is 3,500 mg/L, and the settling test shows that a 1,000 mL sample settles to 350 mL after 30 minutes. What is the SVI and sludge quality?
The "good", "bulking", and "too compacted" quality descriptions in this question refer entirely to the calculated Sludge Volume Index(SVI) numbers. SVI helps the operator know if the sludge is bulky. Numbers between approximately 70 and 150 are typical for healthy activated sludge. Above 150, the sludge gets increasingly bulky and harder to settle. Below 70, the floc does not clump adequately and more suspended solids remain entrapped by the floc as it settles rapidly. SVI = (30 minute settled volume (mL) / MLSS (mg/L)) X 1000 (converts mL to L and mg to g)) = (350mL / 3,500mg/L) X 1000 = 0.1 X 1000 = 100!
80 and good
100 and good
100 and bulking
400 and bulking
13. Which of the following materials should not go onto a trickling filter?
Wastewater applied to a trickling filter usually has had the large solids removed in a primary clarifier. Only the finely divided, suspended solids, the colloidal solids, and the dissolved solids remain.
Colloidal solids
Dissolved solids
Finely divided solids
Large suspended solids
14. Which of the following is true of trickling filter media?
The main purpose of the media is to provide a surface on which the microorganisms can grow. Media must be durable because treatment plants are designed for many years of service. Various media materials have been used, including stone, slag, ceramics, coal, and redwood blocks, or slats. Synthetic materials, such as molded plastic, also have come into use. They are lightweight and easy to handle, allowing greater filter depth without excess weight on underdrains and floor. They double the surface area exposed for the growth of film and their voids clog less often than those of stone filters.
Must hinder recirculation
Must be crushed limestone
Must be durable and provide enough surface area for bacterial growth
All of the above
15. Which activated sludge process has 20+ hours detention time in the aeration basin?
See Table 8.11: Extended Aeration
Conventional
Extended Air
Complete Mix
Contact Stabilization
16. Rotating biological contactors may be ________.
Normally, the basins will function with the discs in continuous operation. Wastewater from the primary clarifier enters the head of the RBC through two influent pipes. The influent wastewater displaces water and sloughed solids into the effluent channel leaving the basin. The displaced water then flows through transfer pipes to the final clarifier for further treatment. The discs are slowly rotated at a rate of 1.0 to 1.5 rpm or about 1 ft./sec. peripheral speed. Each unit is driven either by a motor with a gear reducer or by air trapped in air cups. When driven by a motor, the drive assembly on each drum or disc is powered by an electric motor operating at 1,200 rpm. When driven by air, air headers below the disc allow air to fill air cups installed on the periphery of the disc. The air buoyancy turns the disc.
rotated at about 3.5 rpm
heated by an electric motor
considered primary treatment units
driven by electric motors or trapped air
17. Wastewater stabilization ponds will effectively reduce ________.
All pond systems are capable of reducing biochemical oxygen demand (BOD), bacteria, and other biodegradable materials.
pH
odors
BOD and bacteria
total suspended solids
18. The organic loading on wastewater stabilization ponds should not exceed ________.
Organic loading on wastewater stabilization ponds (when used for secondary treatment) is based on the total surface area of all ponds and should not exceed 35 lb. BOD5/acre/day. Detention times are above 30 days. The loading on the initial pond should not exceed 75 lb. BOD5/acre/day.
20 lb. BOD/acre/day
30 lb. BOD/acre ft./day
35 lb. BOD/acre/day
35 lb. BOD/acre ft./day
19. Which of the following should digester gas contain?
The gas composition in a well-run digester will be about 65%–75% methane and 25%–35% carbon dioxide.
1%–5% carbon dioxide
15%–30% nitrogen
65%–75% methane
None of the above
20. The moisture content of sludge transported to a municipal landfill should be less than ________.
For sludge to be disposed of in a sanitary landfill, it must first be dewatered to prevent contamination of ground and surface water. In addition, the solids content must amount to at least 20% of the total.
20%
40%
60%
80%
21. Which of the following is formed when gas chlorine is added to water?
When chlorine is added to water, it forms a mixture of hydrochloric acid (HCl) and hypochlorous acid (HOCl). Hydrochloric acid is not a disinfectant. The hypochlorous acid compound ionizes into H+ and OCl. The degree of ionization depends on the pH. Cl2 + H2O  HOCl (Hypochlorous) + HCl (Hydrochloric) Hypochlorous acid is extremely effective as a disinfectant, but the hypochlorite ion (OCl) is not. At a pH of 4 or 5 the HOCl concentration is almost 100%. As the pH increases, the percent HOCl decreases, thus decreasing its disinfecting capabilities. At a pH of 7.0 the HOCl concentration is about 70%–80% (Figure 12.2). Most wastewater effluents fall in this range. NOTE: the book mentions nothing about CaCl2 (calcium chloride) being formed when adding gaseous chlorine to water and per the snippet i started with the answer should be HCL AND HOCL but that is not the answer given and is not apparently going to be the answer you see on the test for your license....
H2S
HCl
HOCl
HCL AND HOCL
22. The TCEQ requires a chlorine residual of at least ________.
Where chlorination is utilized, any combination of detention time and chlorine residual where the product of chlorine (Cl, mg/L) x Time (T, Minutes) equals or exceeds 20 is satisfactory provided that the minimum detention time is at least 20 minutes at peak flow and the minimum residual is at least 1.0 mg/L. The maximum chlorine residual in any discharge shall in no event be greater than 4.0 mg/L, or that necessary to protect aquatic life.
0.5 mg/L residual at the outfall
1.0 mg/L residual at outfall
1.0 mg/L residual after 20 minute contact
2.0 mg/L residual after 20 minute contact
23. Total suspended solids are ________.
Total solids, or total residue (TR), are all the solids present in wastewater regardless of form or composition. Total solids consist of suspended and dissolved solids so neither will be "greater than the total solids". If for some reason you think suspended or dissolved solids are not in a solution i would ask you what you think they are suspended or dissolved IN while looking at you funny. Oh yeah, the book also defines suspended and volitile solids thusly: Total suspended solids (TSS) are those that can be filtered out. Volatile suspended solids (VSS) is the amount of TSS that is volatile. VSS is determined by burning the TSS sample at 550°C, which burns off all of the organics.
sometimes in solution
greater than total solids
determined by filtration
determined by heating to 550°C
24. A good sludge volume index should range from ________.
SVI helps the operator know if the sludge is bulky. Numbers between approximately 70 and 150 are typical for healthy activated sludge. Above 150, the sludge gets increasingly bulky and harder to settle. Below 70, the floc does not clump adequately and more suspended solids remain entrapped by the floc as it settles rapidly. SVI = (30 minute settled volume (mL) / MLSS (mg/L)) X 1000 (converts mL to L and mg to g))
50 to 75
70 to 90
95 to 125
150 to 200
25. A POTW has a flow of 3.5 MGD and an influent BOD of 220 mg/L. Find the pounds of BOD in the influent.
Lbs BOD = MGD X 8.34 lbs/gal X mg/L = 3.5MGD × 8.34lbs/gal × 220mg/L = 6,421.8lbs! NOTE: all you get for these problems will be the TLDR section of the explanation you would have seen in earlier modules. if you want a better explanation i recommend visiting those.
1,223 lb.
6,422 lb.
7,225 lb.
8,965 lb.
26. What is the detention time in hours of a tank 50 ft. long, 25 ft. wide, and 10 ft. deep, with a flow of 2 MGD?
DThrs = BasinCapacity gal / fill rate gph = (L X W X D X 7.48 gal/ft^3)gal / ((MGD X 1,000,000) / 24hrs)gph = (50ft × 25ft × 10ft × 7.48gal/ft^3)gal / ((2MGD X 1,000,000) / 24)gph = 93,500gal / 83,333gph = 1.12hrs!
1.12 hrs
1.64 hrs
2.28 hrs
2.44 hrs
27. A treatment plant has two primary clarifiers. Each has a diameter of 40 ft. and a depth of 12 ft. If the design flow is 1.2 MGD, find the surface loading on each clarifier in gal./ft.2/day. Assume the flow is equally split between the two clarifiers.
Surface loading = flow / clarifier surface area = ((MGD X 1,000,000) / 2 clarifiers)gpd / (3.14 X R X R)ft^2 = ((MGD X 1,000,000) / 2)gpd / (3.14 X (D / 2) X (D / 2))ft^2 = ((1.2 X 1,000,000) / 2)gpd / (3.14 X (40/2) X (40/2))ft^2 = (1,200,000 / 2)gpd / (3.14 X 20 X 20)ft^2 = 600,000gpd / 1256ft^2 = 477.7gal/ft^2/day = 478gal/ft^2/day!
325 gal./ft.2 /day
478 gal./ft.2/day
650 gal./ft.2/day
956 gal./ft.2/day
28. A standard rate rock trickling filter is 120 ft. in diameter and 8 ft. deep. What is the hydraulic loading in MG per acre per day if 1.0 MGD is treated?
MGAD = flow in MGD / area of trickling filter in acres = 1MGD / ((3.14 X 60 X 60)ft^2 / 43,560ft^2/acre)acre = 1MGD / (11,304ft^2 / 43,560ft^2/acre) = 1MGD / 0.2595acres = 3.85 MGAD!
2.15 MGAD
2.70 MGAD
3.25 MGAD
3.85 MGAD
29. What will be the detention time in days in a pond that is 850 ft. long, 250 ft. wide with an average depth of 4 ft. that is receiving a flow of 0.2 MGD and has a net evaporation loss of 8 in. per 30 day month?
DTdays = PondCapacitygal / net volume gained per daygal/day = (Lft X Wft X Dft X 7.48gal/ft^3)gal / ((MGD X 1,000,000)gpd - (EvapLoss / 30days)gpd) = (850ft X 250ft X 4ft X 7.48gal/ft^3)gal / ((0.2MGD X 1,000,000)gpd - ((Lft X Wft X (Din / 12)ft X 7.48gal/ft^3)gal / 30days)gpd) = 6,358,000gal / (200,000gpd - ((850ft X 250ft X (8in / 12)ft X 7.48gal/ft^3)gal / 30days)gpd) = 6,358,000gal / (200,000gpd - (1,058,607gal / 30days)gpd) = 6,358,000gal / (200,000gpd - 35,287gpd) = 6,358,000gal / 164,713gpd = 38.6days!
30.45 days
36.70 days
38.65 days
40.20 days
30. If 200 lb./day of gas chlorine is added to 2.8 MGD, what is the dosage in mg/L?
Dosagemg/L = lbsBOD / (MGD X 8.34lbs/gal) = 200lb/day / (2.8MGD X 8.34lbs/gal) = (200 / 23.352) = 8.56mg/L!
5.9 mg/L
6.5 mg/L
7.8 mg/L
8.6 mg/L
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