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pharmacology - multi choice mid sem practice exam - Statistics

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Question Answer % Correct
Drug A has a lower potency and a lower efficacy than drug B. Therefore drug A is: A partial agonist
70%
The –olol ending in a drug name denotes that the drug belongs to which drug class? Beta adrenergic blocker
60%
When phenobarbitone reduces the anticoagulant effect of warfarin by accelerating its hepatic metabolism, it is acting as a: Pharmacokinetic inhibitor
40%
Myasthenia Gravis is an autoimmune condition that targets acetylcholine receptors on the neuromuscular junction. Neostigmine is an effective treatment for this condition. Neostigmine is: A cholinesterase inhibitor
30%
Which of the following is an antagonist at the muscarinic acetylcholine receptor? Atropine
30%
Frusemide is an example of: Loop diuretic
30%
Which of the following is classed as a parenteral route of drug administration? Subcutaneous
30%
One of the effects of sympathetic nervous system stimulation, is urinary retention due to adrenaline-mediated bladder sphincter contraction. Which adrenergic receptor subtype is activated in this process? Alpha 1
20%
In the absence of other drugs, pindolol causes an increase in heart rate by activating beta adrenergic receptors. In the presence of highly effective beta receptor agonists, however, pindolol causes a dose-dependent, reversible decrease in heart rate. Therefore, pindolol is classed as: A partial agonist
20%
Which of the following is a beta adrenergic blocker used in the treatment of angina pectoris? Atenolol
20%
One of the effects of sympathetic nervous system stimulation, is blood vessel vasodilation. Which adrenergic receptor subtype is activated in this process? Beta 2
20%
If drug A has an ED50 of 5mM, drug B has an ED50 of 50mM and drug C has an ED50 of 500mM, which drug is the most potent? Drug A
20%
A 55-year-old woman with heart failure is to be treated with a diuretic drug. Drugs X and Y have the same mechanism of diuretic action. Drug X in a dose of 5 mg produces the same magnitude of diuresis as 500 mg of drug Y. This suggests that: Drug X is about 100 times more potent than drug Y
20%
Assays to look at dose-effect interactions reveal which of the following? Emax, ED50
20%
Which of the following receptor sub-groups elicits the fastest response when activated by an agonist? Ligand-gated ion channels (e.g. nicotinic acetylcholine receptor)
20%
The –profen ending in a drug name denotes that the drug belongs to which drug class? Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)
20%
Heroin is usually measured in 25 mg bags. Unsuspecting users of China White who normally use three bags of heroin to get a ‘high’ died after injecting one bag of China White. If 50% of China White users died after injecting one bag, which of the following statements is correct? The LD50 for China White is 25 mg
20%
With respect to the harmful effects of drugs, which of the following statements is false? The placenta acts as a barrier preventing all drugs taken by the mother from affecting the developing foetus
20%
The area under the serum concentration-time curves (AUC) were measured after single doses of 10 mg of a new antihypertensive drug were administered in hypertensive patients. The results were as follows: intravenous bolus AUC = 2500 mg . h/L, oral capsule AUC = 500 mg . h/L, oral liquid AUC = 650 mg . h/L. What is the bioavailability of the oral liquid? 0.26 or 26%
10%
What is the plasma concentration of a drug when 700 mg is given by IV bolus to a 220lb patient if her volume of distribution is 35 L/kg. (Please note that 1kg = 2.2lb) 0.2mg/L
10%
A single intravenous dose of 40 mg of diazepam was administered to a patient. A blood sample was drawn and it contained 50 µg/mL. Calculate the apparent volume of distribution for the drug. 0.8 L
10%
If 500mg of a drug is administered orally and 50mg is absorbed unchanged, the bioavailability of the drug is: 10%
10%
If 550 mg of a drug are administered intravenously and the resultant drug plasma concentration is determined to be 25 μg/100mL, what is the apparent volume of distribution of the drug? 2200L
10%
What is the plasma concentration of a drug when 700 mg is given by IV bolus to a 220lb patient if her volume of distribution is 3.5L/kg. (Please note that 1kg = 2.2lb) 2 mg/L
10%
Assuming complete absorption and an elimination half-life of 5 hours, how many mg of a drug will remain in the body 35 hours after administering a 400 mg dose? 3.125
10%
Assuming complete absorption and an elimination half-life of 5 hours, how many mg of a drug will remain in the body 35 hours after administering a 400 mg dose? 3.1 mg
10%
Atropine is an effective treatment for the relief of ciliary spasm. Atropine is: A cholinergic antagonist
10%
Arrange these in order of which elicits a faster response when activated by an agonist (fastest to slowest): a. Ligand-gated ion channels (e.g. nicotinic acetylcholine receptor) b. Kinase-linked receptors (e.g. insulin receptor) c. Nuclear receptors (e.g. oestrogen receptors) d. G protein-coupled receptors (e.g. muscarinic acetylcholine receptor) a, d, b, c
10%
Prazosin, a common vasodilator, belongs to which drug class? Alpha 1 adrenergic receptor antagonist
10%
Which cellular compound does the phosphodiesterase enzyme family produce from cyclic AMP? AMP
10%
A particular illness or disease state in which a drug has been shown to have a therapeutic effect is known as: An indication
10%
In the absence of other drugs, pindolol causes an increase in heart rate by activating beta adrenergic receptors. In the presence of highly effective beta receptor agonists, however, pindolol causes a dose-dependent, reversible decrease in heart rate. Therefore, pindolol is: A partial agonist
10%
A 70 year old hypertensive man with a childhood history of asthma had a recent myocardial infarction and is prescribed metoprolol. Which class of drug does metoprolol belong to? Beta 1 adrenergic receptor antagonist
10%
ACE inhibitors are useful drugs in the treatment of hypertension. Which of the following is an example of this class of drugs? Captopril
10%
Systemic distribution of many drugs can evoke skin reactions that are a result of an immunological reaction, generally caused by photosensitization of the drug. What type of adverse effects would this be considered as? Cutaneous reactions
10%
Two antihypertensive drugs, X and Y, were studied in a large group of patients and the percentages of the group showing a specific therapeutic effect (20 mm Hg decrease in systolic blood pressure) were determined. The results are shown in the table below. Which of the following statements about these results, from the information provided, is correct? Drug X is less potent than drug Y
10%
Which of the following is an antagonist at the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor? d-Tubocurarine
10%
Which of the following is classed as a parenteral route of drug administration? Intravenous administration
10%
Drug F reduced the basal GTPase activity in a concentration dependent manner. What should Drug F be classified as? Inverse agonist
10%
Drug B is given to a rat and the maximal response is at 100. Drug C is given to the same rat and the maximal response has diminished. Drug A is further given at higher doses but response doesn’t change. What should Drug C be classified as? Irreversible competitive antagonist
10%
For a partial agonist, which of the following is true? Need all receptors occupied to get non-maximal response
10%
Which of the following is an agonist at the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor? Nicotine
10%
Drug D reduces the anticoagulant effect of Drug F by accelerating its hepatic metabolism. What should Drug D be classified as? Pharmacokinetic antagonist
10%
Drug J raises the arterial blood pressure acting on heart and peripheral vessels whilst Drug K lowers arterial blood pressure causing vasodilation Therefore, Drug K can be classified as: Physiological antagonist
10%
The levels of which ion directly increase as a result of digitalis action on the cardiac myocyte? Sodium
10%
The amount of a drug given initially to obtain the desired plasma concentration as soon as possible is known as: The loading dose
10%
In the Langmuir equation, Ntot-N denotes: The number of unoccupied receptors in a tissue after addition of drug
10%
How do angiotensin receptor blockers affect the production of aldosterone? They inhibit production of aldosterone
10%
Which of the following is not observed in Type II diabetes mellitus: Unresponsive to treatment with oral hypoglycaemic drugs
10%
Inhibition of the parasympathetic nervous system with an antimuscarinic agent such as tropicamide, results in which of the following adverse effects? Urinary retention
10%
A drug has an elimination rate constant of 0.355 hr-1. Its elimination half-life is: 1.95 hours
0%
Calcium channel blockers such as diltiazem belong to which class of antiarrhythmic drugs used in the treatment of tachyarrhythmias? Class IV
0%
Which of the statements below is true with regards to ethanol? Ethanol has low chemical and low biological specificities
0%
Angiotensin II receptor blockers are useful drugs in the treatment of hypertension. Which of the following is an example of this class of drugs? Irbesartan
0%
Angiotensin II receptor blockers are useful drugs in the treatment of hypertension. Which of the following is an example of this class of drugs? Irbesartan
0%
When an antagonist interacts with a G protein coupled receptor, what is the effect of the drug on the GTPase activity of the G protein linked to that receptor. It has no effect on the GTPase activity
0%
Which of the following is false for the stimulatory G protein Gs? It is found on the inner leaflet of the cell plasma membrane
0%
With respect to the pharmacokinetic properties of morphine, which of the following is true: Morphine salts have poor oral bioavailability as they undergo extensive first- pass metabolism in the liver
0%
When verapamil & nifedipine prevent the influx of calcium ions specifically blocking the contraction of smooth muscle produced by other drugs, they are acting as: Non-competitive inhibitors
0%
Which phase in drug development does post-marketing surveillance occur? Phase IV
0%
Which of the following is an anorexiant used in the treatment of obesity? Phentermine
0%
Which of the schedule levels indicates the entry level for a prescription-only medicine? Schedule 4
0%
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