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⭐STARS⭐ Organizational Behavior Practice Quiz
This quiz is designed to help you prepare for the midterm exam in your Organizational Behavior course (1BA3). It covers content from Weeks 1 through 5
The questions focus on all the “starred” concepts highlighted during lectures.
Approximately 50% of the midterm will cover these starred concepts, while the remaining 50% will come from the textbook.
Take your time, think critically, and use this quiz as an opportunity to strengthen your understanding.
Good luck!
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Last updated: October 20, 2025
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| First submitted | October 19, 2025 |
| Times taken | 86 |
| Average score | 60.0% | Report this quiz | Report |
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1. What is the best definition of a core competency?
A weakness that needs improvement
A personal interest or hobby unrelated to work
A fundamental skill or strength that is valuable across different jobs
A temporary ability learned for a single task
2. What does Emotional Intelligence (EI) refer to in Organizational Behaviour?
The ability to suppress emotions at work
The ability to understand and manage one’s own emotions and the emotions of others
The ability to use logic and reason only in decision-making
The ability to avoid emotional situations altogether
3. What is the best definition of synergy in a team setting?
When team members compete to achieve individual goals
When the team’s combined performance is greater than the sum of each individual’s efforts
When everyone in the team does the same task
When the team avoids conflict by agreeing with the leader
4. In the context of effective team communication, applying the “Who? What? How?” framework helps leaders and members to:
Identify potential conflicts within the group before setting goals
Focus primarily on individual strengths rather than shared objectives
Clearly define the people involved, specify the objective to be achieved, and determine the strategy or process to reach that goal
Develop personal goals without considering team dynamics
5. When decision-makers continue to invest time, money, or effort into a failing course of action despite clear evidence that it is not working, this behaviour is best explained by which concept?
Confirmation Bias
Groupthink
Bounded Rationality
Escalation of Commitment Theory
6. Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between stress and performance?
All stress reduces employee performance
Employees perform best with zero stress
Performance can improve with moderate (positive) stress but declines with too much (negative) stress
Stress always increases motivation
7. In the formula S + T = R, what do the letters stand for?
Situation + Thinking = Response
Stress + Task = Result
Strategy + Time = Reward
System + Training = Reaction
8. According to the Dᵖ > Rᵖ = Sᵈ equation, when perceived demands exceed perceived resources, what occurs?
High motivation
Stress
Improved performance
Job satisfaction
9. Employees usually feel over-reward inequity when they are paid more than co-workers who perform the same work.
True – This is called over-reward inequity because they receive more than others for the same input.
False – This is under-reward inequity because they receive less than others.
False – This describes equity, not inequity
True – But only if they are also promoted
10. People are definitely either introverted or extroverted.
True – Personality types are fixed as either one or the other.
False – According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI), introversion and extroversion exist on a scale, not as absolute categories.
False – People can change completely from introvert to extrovert overnight.
True – Everyone must fit into one clear type
11. The statement “Highly cohesive groups are also highly productive” is generally false because:
Cohesion and productivity are always directly proportional—stronger bonds guarantee better performance.
Cohesive groups naturally avoid conformity pressures and decision biases.
Productivity only depends on leadership style, not group cohesion.
High cohesion can sometimes lead to groupthink, where members prioritize harmony and consensus over critical evaluation of ideas.
12. What does CSR stand for, and what does it mean?
Corporate Social Responsibility – a company’s commitment to act ethically and contribute to economic, social, and environmental well-being
Corporate Strategic Reporting – a process of tracking and publishing a company’s financial results
Customer Service Relations – managing client feedback and satisfaction
Community Support Regulation – a government policy requiring local business involvement
13. When addressing a workplace problem, an effective problem-solving process generally follows which sequence of steps?
Understand the current state → Gather data and ask predictive questions → Explain findings → Make recommendations → Manage implementation
Make recommendations → Understand the current state → Implement actions → Evaluate success → Gather data
Assign blame → Implement solutions → Measure outcomes → Reflect on past decisions → Celebrate success
Brainstorm solutions → Implement immediately → Explain findings → Evaluate team cohesion → Gather data
14. The thermostat analogy in change management illustrates the process of guiding an organization from its current state to a desired future state. Which sequence of steps best represents this approach?
Assess current state → Define desired state → Identify and implement corrective actions → Measure change and restart
Define desired state → Assign tasks → Implement changes → Celebrate success
Measure change → Implement corrective actions → Define desired state → Assess current state
Assign responsibility → Communicate change → Train employees → Monitor performance
15. In the thermostat analogy, what does the magnitude of the gap represent?
The difference between employee skill levels
The size of the budget allocated for change initiatives
The number of employees involved in the change process
The distance between the current organizational state and the desired state, guiding the extent of corrective actions
16. Scenario: A mid-sized software company has noticed that its product development teams are consistently missing deadlines. After conducting an internal review, management finds that the current project tracking system is outdated and lacks proper visibility.
Which step of the thermostat analogy is management currently performing?
Defining the desired state – setting the goal to meet deadlines using a new project management tool
Implementing corrective actions – rolling out the new project management software to the teams
Assessing the current state – identifying that teams are missing deadlines and understanding the causes
Measuring change and restarting – tracking whether deadlines improve and adjusting the process as needed
17. Research on worker illumination falls under the broader concept of ambient conditioning. What do these studies primarily investigate?
The impact of leadership style on team cohesion and motivation
How individual personality traits affect job satisfaction
The effect of salary and financial incentives on performance
How changes in environmental factors, such as lighting, temperature, or noise, influence employee productivity, behavior, and well-being
18. In Organizational Behavior, when considering what influences employee behaviour more, research suggests that:
Personality alone determines behavior, regardless of situational factors
Environment alone determines behavior, while personality has minimal effect
Behavior is influenced by a combination of both personality (nature) and situational/environmental factors (nurture), with context often shaping the expression of traits
Behavior is completely random and cannot be explained by personality or environment
19. A new employee consistently demonstrates high initiative regardless of team, manager, or office environment. This behavior is best explained by which approach?
Dispositional – internal traits such as personality drive behavior
Situational – external factors such as culture or organizational policies drive behaviour
Interactionist – behavior results from a combination of traits and environment
None of the above
20. Which of the following correctly distinguishes internal (dispositional) attributions from external (situational) attributions in explaining employee behaviour?
Internal – behavior is caused by the work environment; External – behaviour is caused by personality
Internal (dispositional) – behavior is attributed to personal traits, personality, or innate abilities; External (situational) – behaviour is attributed to environmental factors such as culture, resources, or organizational constraints
Internal – behavior is random; External – behavior is predictable
Internal – behavior is only influenced by leadership; External – behavior is only influenced by coworkers
21. In diversity management, employees’ differences are typically categorized into two levels. Which option correctly identifies these levels and their characteristics?
Surface-level diversity – personal hobbies and interests; Deep-level diversity – technical skills and education
Surface-level diversity – leadership style; Deep-level diversity – personality traits
Surface-level diversity – cultural norms; Deep-level diversity – team cohesion
Surface-level diversity – observable differences such as race, gender, and age; Deep-level diversity – underlying differences such as values, beliefs, and habits
22. A manager notices that two employees who look very similar (same gender and ethnicity) still have very different communication styles and work habits. Which level of diversity does this illustrate?
Surface-level diversity
Deep-level diversity
Neither, this is an issue of performance
Both surface-level and deep-level diversity
23. What is the floor effect in the context of employee performance or assessment?
A situation in which most individuals score at the lower end of a measurement scale, making it difficult to distinguish differences in ability or performance
A phenomenon where employees consistently outperform expectations
A situation where environmental factors completely determine outcomes, ignoring individual traits
A bias in which only top performers are evaluated
24. Which of the following jobs would most likely benefit from a high level of extraversion in an employee?
Data Analyst – primarily focuses on independent, detail-oriented work
Software Developer – spends most time coding independently
Sales Representative – requires frequent social interaction and persuasion
Archivist – works alone to maintain records and historical documents
25. What is proactivity in the context of employee behavior?
The tendency to follow rules strictly without suggesting improvements
The tendency to anticipate and initiate positive change, improve processes, and take initiative before problems occur
The tendency to rely on luck rather than planning when completing tasks
The tendency to wait until errors occur before taking corrective action
26. A low-proactivity employee is most likely to
Continuously suggest improvements to projects even when no problems are present
Wait until an error occurs before addressing a problem
Actively mentor colleagues and improve team dynamics
Volunteer for challenging assignments to create impact
27. What does the term “glass ceiling” refer to in organizational behaviour?
A formal policy that limits promotions for specific employees
A transparent reporting system for workplace goals
A company’s mentoring program for high-potential employees
An invisible barrier that prevents certain groups, often women, from advancing to higher-level positions despite qualifications and performance
28. What is cognitive dissonance (discrepancy) in the context of work behaviour?
A psychological state in which an employee perceives a mismatch between desired job outcomes and actual outcomes, causing discomfort or tension
A situation in which employees are perfectly satisfied with their job and outcomes
A state where employees ignore organizational goals and focus only on personal interests
A policy that limits promotions based on seniority
29. Which of the following is a likely consequence of cognitive dissonance in the workplace?
Increased conformity to unrelated social norms
Guaranteed promotion regardless of performance
Decreased job satisfaction and motivation
Improved alignment between personality and job tasks
30. According to Social Identity Theory, an individual’s sense of self is comprised of:
Personal self-identity – one’s perception of oneself (e.g., humility, arrogance); and social self-identity – one’s perception in relation to others, influencing attitudes toward other people
Only personal achievements and abilities, independent of social context
Solely external evaluations from coworkers and supervisors
All of the above
31. Which scenario illustrates social self-identity?
An employee feels proud of their work ethic after successfully completing a project
An employee perceives a colleague as competent and adjusts their attitude toward collaboration accordingly
An employee meditates to improve self-awareness and reduce arrogance
An employee sets personal goals unrelated to team performance
32. Scenario: Maya is a project manager who prides herself on her personal competence and attention to detail. She also strongly identifies with her team, feeling that their successes and failures reflect on her. During a team meeting, a colleague from another department publicly questions the team’s approach. Maya feels embarrassed and defensive.
Which of the following BEST illustrates the interplay between personal self-identity and social self-identity in this scenario?
Maya’s embarrassment stems solely from her personal competence (personal self-identity), independent of her team affiliation.
Maya’s sense of team affiliation (social self-identity) overrides her personal feelings of competence, so only her reaction toward others matters.
Maya’s reaction is a combination of her personal self-identity (pride in competence) and her social self-identity (identifying with her team), influencing her attitude toward herself and others.
Maya’s experience reflects only social norms and has no connection to her personal or social self-identity
33. Which of the following sequences correctly represents the five steps of the perceptual process in organizational behavior, and accurately reflects where human judgment can introduce bias?
Observation → Environmental stimuli → Interpretation → Perceptual selection → Perceptual organization
Perceptual organization → Observation → Interpretation → Environmental stimuli → Perceptual selection
Environmental stimuli → Observation → Perceptual selection → Perceptual organization/construction → Interpretation; steps 3, 4, and 5 are “dangerous” because attention, filtering, and interpretation can introduce errors or bias
Environmental stimuli → Interpretation → Perceptual selection → Perceptual organization → Observation
34. In the perceptual process, which stage is most critical for avoiding errors in decision-making, and why are steps 3, 4, and 5 considered “dangerous”?
Environmental stimuli – because observation always reflects reality accurately
Observation – because attention cannot be controlled at this stage
Perceptual construction – because it only affects sensory input, not decisions
Interpretation – because decisions are made at this stage, biases or misperceptions from earlier stages can distort reality and lead to errors
35. Scenario: Alex works in marketing and receives hundreds of emails, social media updates, and reports daily. He notices that he often ignores messages with vague subject lines but immediately reacts to messages with bold colors or urgent wording.
Which stage(s) of the perceptual process is Alex demonstrating?
Perceptual selection – choosing which stimuli to focus on based on salience (color, urgency) and filtering out less noticeable information
Observation – simply receiving environmental stimuli without filtering
Interpretation – forming conclusions about the meaning of messages
Perceptual defense – automatically attending to everything equally
36. In Organizational Behavior, attribution refers to
The process of observing behavior without making judgments
The process of assigning causes or motives to explain people’s behaviour, which can influence long-term outcomes
Automatically assuming all behavior is due to personality
A statistical tool used to measure team performance
37. Scenario: Jordan misses a project deadline. His manager concludes that Jordan is lazy and disorganized, ignoring the fact that the project scope was changed multiple times by clients.
Which type of attribution is the manager demonstrating?
Consensus cue – comparing Jordan’s performance to the team
Interactionist attribution – considering both personality and environment equally
External attribution – blaming the environment and situational factors
Internal attribution – blaming Jordan’s personality and intellect
38. Which statement best describes a consistency cue in attribution theory?
It compares one employee’s behaviour to that of others performing the same task
It measures how an employee’s behaviour is repeated over time in similar situations, helping determine whether the cause is internal or external
It compares performance across different tasks to see if behaviour is task-specific
It is used to predict future behaviour without reference to past actions
39. Scenario: Taylor performs exceptionally on client presentations but struggles with internal report writing.
Which attribution cue helps explain Taylor’s behaviour in this case?
Internal attribution – because it attributes behaviour to personality only
Consistency cue – because it examines performance over time
Consensus cue – because it compares Taylor to colleagues
Distinctiveness cue – because it evaluates performance across different tasks
40. Which of the following statements BEST describes the Pygmalion Effect in organizational behavior?
An employee’s performance improves automatically whenever management implements stricter performance metrics.
Higher expectations of an individual can lead to higher performance, while lower expectations can lead to lower performance, because the perceiver’s behavior influences the target’s outcomes.
The effect only occurs if the employee is aware of the expectations; otherwise, expectations have no influence.
It occurs when all employees perform at the same level, regardless of the manager’s expectations, because behavior is entirely determined by ability.
41. Which of the following best captures the basic characteristics of motivation in organizational behaviour?
Effort – the intensity of work-related behavior; Persistence – the continued application of effort over time despite obstacles; Direction – the channeling of effort toward organizationally relevant goals
Effort – only working harder when observed; Persistence – sticking with tasks only if rewards are immediate; Direction – randomly choosing tasks to perform
Effort – physical stamina only; Persistence – completing tasks once without repetition; Direction – relying entirely on managers to assign priorities
Effort – minimal energy expenditure; Persistence – focusing on one goal exclusively; Direction – ignoring organizational objectives
42. Emma works as a software developer. She often stays late at the office because she enjoys solving complex coding problems and learning new programming techniques. Her company also offers a generous bonus for completing projects ahead of schedule. Emma occasionally thinks about the bonus, but most of her satisfaction comes from mastering new skills and seeing her solutions work effectively.
Based on motivation theory, Emma’s behaviour is primarily driven by:
Extrinsic motivation, because the company bonus is her main driver for staying late
Equally intrinsic and extrinsic motivation, because she notices both the bonus and the learning opportunities
Intrinsic motivation, because her primary satisfaction comes from the challenge and learning inherent in the task itself
Neither; Emma’s behaviour is random and unrelated to motivation
43. Which of the following BEST describes the Content Approach to motivation in organizational behaviour?
It focuses on the specific needs and motives of individuals, aiming to understand what employees require to align their needs with their job and work environment.
It emphasizes the process by which motivation occurs, including goal-setting, feedback, and expectations, rather than individual needs.
It assumes motivation is entirely determined by external rewards and punishments.
It ignores employee needs and instead focuses solely on organizational policies and procedures.
44. Which of the following correctly pairs McClelland’s three primary needs with their core characteristics?
Need for Affiliation – desire for recognition and status; Need for Power – desire for team harmony only; Need for Achievement – desire to avoid risks.
Need for Affiliation – desire to compete aggressively; Need for Power – desire to complete personal goals only; Need for Achievement – desire for friendships.
Need for Affiliation – desire for autonomy and control; Need for Power – desire to avoid responsibilities; Need for Achievement – desire for social approval.
Need for Affiliation – desire for friendships, connections, and social interaction; Need for Power – desire to influence, lead, and control others, with positive or negative outcomes; Need for Achievement – desire to set and accomplish challenging goals, often linked to perfectionism.
45. Which of the following BEST describes positive reinforcement?
The removal of a pleasant stimulus to decrease a behavior
The application of a pleasant stimulus following a behavior, increasing the likelihood that the behavior will occur again (e.g., praise, recognition)
The application of an unpleasant stimulus to reduce a behavior
Ignoring a behavior to extinguish it
46. Which of the following statements distinguishes punishment from extinction?
Punishment – removing a pleasant stimulus to increase a behavior; Extinction – applying a reward to reduce a behavior.
Punishment – giving a reward after behavior to decrease it; Extinction – applying an unpleasant stimulus after behavior to increase it.
Punishment and extinction are identical; both use rewards to modify behavior.
Punishment – applying an unpleasant stimulus after a behavior to reduce it; Extinction – withdrawing a pleasant stimulus to make a behavior less likely to occur again.
47. Which statement BEST reflects the idea of a reinforcement sequence in workplace behavior?
Positive reinforcement works best if applied only once
Behaviors are typically shaped by a sequence of positive and negative reinforcement over time, rather than a single reinforcement event
Negative reinforcement always cancels out positive reinforcement
Punishment is the only method needed to shape employee behavior
48. Which statement BEST connects the thermostat analogy to OB-Mod in reinforcement theory?
OB-Mod ignores feedback and adjusts employee behavior randomly, unlike a thermostat
A thermostat only works for physical systems; OB-Mod does not rely on monitoring or reinforcement
Just as a thermostat measures and adjusts temperature to maintain a desired state, OB-Mod monitors employee behavior, applies reinforcement, and adjusts actions to shape behavior toward goals
OB-Mod replaces reinforcement with punishment exclusively, unlike a thermostat
49. Which of the following correctly differentiates Job Enlargement from Job Enrichment?
Job Enlargement is about pay increases; Job Enrichment is about working fewer hours.
Both are identical; they only increase the number of tasks
Job Enlargement increases responsibility and motivation; Job Enrichment adds more repetitive tasks.
Job Enlargement adds more tasks to a job, while Job Enrichment redesigns the job to enhance intrinsic motivation, increase quality of work life, and boost job involvement.
50. Which statement accurately describes Job Involvement?
It involves giving employees more tasks to increase variety.
It focuses on redesigning the job to increase intrinsic motivation.
It is a cognitive state in which an employee identifies with the job and considers the work personally important.
It is only about increasing pay or external rewards to improve engagement.
51. Which statement BEST captures the limitations of the rational decision-making model?
It assumes that humans can make fully calculated decisions with complete understanding of all variables, which is ideal but difficult to achieve in practice.
It reflects how people make decisions intuitively with no analysis or structure.
It works perfectly in all real-world situations because humans always have complete information.
It ignores the role of information or problem structure entirely.
52. Which of the following correctly describes the impact of ill-structured versus well-structured problems?
Ill-structured problems are easier to solve because they require less information; well-structured problems are harder because they require precise analysis.
Both ill-structured and well-structured problems always allow for fully rational decisions.
Well-structured problems are subjective and ill-structured problems are always objective.
Ill-structured problems lack clear goals and complete information, making objective, rational decisions difficult; well-structured problems have clear goals and sufficient information, allowing for more objective decision-making.
53. Which of the following is an example of the anchoring effect in the workplace?
A manager researches the market and selects a salary independently of any prior figures.
A manager initially suggests a salary of $60,000 for a new hire, and all subsequent negotiations revolve around that number, even if the market rate is higher.
Employees are given multiple random salary options, and decisions are made purely by chance.
The manager ignores all prior salary data and selects the lowest possible offer.
54. When making decisions, the anchoring effect occurs because
People rely on an initial reference point or “anchor” and make subsequent judgments by comparing to that anchor, even if it is irrelevant or arbitrary.
People always calculate the objectively best decision without influence from prior information.
Decisions are made randomly to avoid bias from initial information.
Anchoring occurs only when people deliberately ignore the first piece of information they see.
55. A team is tasked with selecting software for project management. They review multiple options but choose the first software that meets all minimum requirements, instead of evaluating every possible solution. This is an example of:
Anchoring – basing decisions on the first software they see, regardless of quality
Satisficing – choosing an acceptable solution rather than the perfect one
Maximization – selecting the best possible option through exhaustive analysis
Random decision-making – ignoring criteria entirely
56. Which of the following BEST illustrates the concept of satisficing?
Exhaustively analyzing every possible alternative to always select the best possible outcome
Randomly choosing an option without any evaluation
Continuing to generate and evaluate alternatives until a solution that is “good enough” is found, rather than attempting to find the optimal solution.
Ignoring all available alternatives and following a default option set by others
57. Which statement accurately reflects attitudes toward risk in decision-making?
Risk-taking always leads to poor decisions, and risk-averse always leads to optimal outcomes
Risk-neutral individuals avoid risk at all costs, while risk-averse individuals prefer high-risk decisions.
Risk attitudes are entirely fixed personality traits that cannot change.
Risk-averse individuals prefer safer options and avoid uncertainty; risk-taking individuals are comfortable with uncertainty and may pursue high-reward opportunities; risk-neutral individuals make decisions without strong bias toward or against risk.
58. Which of the following BEST explains the role of tolerance for ambiguity in decision-making under risk?
Tolerance for ambiguity is unrelated to risk-taking or personality
Individuals with low tolerance for ambiguity dislike uncertainty and prefer structured situations; individuals with high tolerance are comfortable with uncertainty and change, often correlating with certain personality traits.
High tolerance for ambiguity always guarantees better decision outcomes.
Low tolerance for ambiguity means individuals enjoy risk and unpredictability.
59. Which of the following statements correctly describes the chain of command in an organization?
The chain of command refers only to informal communication networks and does not include formal authority or reporting lines.
The chain of command eliminates the need for horizontal communication and ensures that all messages are perfectly filtered before reaching employees.
The chain of command focuses solely on employee motivation and task assignment, rather than communication or authority structures.
The chain of command defines lines of authority and formal reporting relationships, serving as the channel through which information is supposed to flow. It also allows upward, horizontal, and downward communication.
60. Which of the following is a recognized deficiency of the chain of command?
It ensures that all communication is immediate, informal, and error-free.
It prevents employees from following formal reporting relationships
It may fail to account for informal communication, filter messages, and be slow or bureaucratic.
It eliminates the need for upward or horizontal communication entirely.
61. A new employee learns about an upcoming project before it is officially announced through informal conversations with colleagues across departments. This is an example of:
Information transmitted via the grapevine, highlighting the informal network’s ability to share early knowledge.
Miscommunication that occurs only in poorly structured organizations.
Formal horizontal communication, coordinated by management.
Standard downward communication, following the chain of command.
62. Which of the following statements correctly defines jargon in an organizational context?
Jargon refers to any casual conversation among employees, regardless of occupation or role.
Jargon is a formal reporting document used to communicate authority and instructions.
Jargon is the specialized language or terminology used by job holders or members of particular occupations or organizations, often understood only by insiders.
Jargon eliminates the need for training or orientation by making all tasks self-explanatory.
63. Which of the following is a dimension of cross-cultural communication?
Job title and salary level
Language differences, non-verbal communication, etiquette and politeness, social conventions, and cultural context
Technology usage and office layout
Only language differences and clothing styles
64. Which of the following correctly distinguishes low-context and high-context cultures?
High-context cultures communicate only through written memos; low-context cultures rely solely on face-to-face meetings.
Both low-context and high-context cultures ignore non-verbal communication.
Low-context cultures (e.g., Scandinavia, North America) rely mostly on explicit verbal information, while high-context cultures (e.g., parts of Europe and Africa) draw meaning from surroundings, environment, and non-verbal cues.
Low-context cultures rely on non-verbal cues, while high-context cultures use only explicit words.
65. Which of the following reflects best practices when communicating across cultures?
Focus only on verbal communication; non-verbal cues are irrelevant.
Avoid learning about cultural differences to prevent stereotyping
Assume differences until you know otherwise, respect differences, recognize cultural norms, and carefully watch your language.
Assume all cultures operate the same way and do not adjust your communication style.
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