010 AIRLAW

1. When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same level the one that has the other on its right is required to give way. True or false?

False, provided the other aircraft is not towing anything.

True.

True, unless the other aircraft has a glider on tow.

False. The one that has the other on its left has right of way

2. How shall two aircrafts avoid collision when they are approaching each other head-on in the air?

Both aircraft shall alter their headings to the left.

Both aircraft shall alter their headings to the right.

Non-powered aircraft has a right of way, powered aircraft shall deviate to the left.

Powered-aircraft has a right of way, non-powered aircraft shall deviate to the right.

3. Which of the following documents is not required to be carried in an aircraft of an ICAO member state?

Flight crew birth certificates.

Certificate of Airworthiness.

Certificate of Registration.

Flight crew licences.

4. When intercepted by a military aircraft, the pilot of an VFR aircraft should:

Squawk 7700.

All answers are correct.

Attempt to establish communications with the intercepting aircraft over 121.5 MHz and comply with the intercepts signals.

Acknowledge receipt of intercepting aircraft instructions with the appropriate visual signals.

5. Movement area consists:

Runway and taxiway

Apron

Runway, taxiway and apron

Standard departure and arrival routes and runway

6. When should the student pilot present her/his Pilot Medical Certificate?

Before her/his first solo flight.

At giving in the exam's application.

Before the beginning of a practical training.

Before the beginning of theoretical lessons.

7. What Medical Certificate is required for a holder of a Private Pilot Licence?

Class 1 Medical Certificate only.

Class A or Class B Medical Certificate

Class 2 Medical Certificate only.

Class 1 or Class 2 Medical Certificate.

8. At least how many hours of dual instructions on aircraft must an applicant have for a PPL?

15 hours.

20 hours.

25 hours.

10 hours.

9. The Flight Time is the total time from the moment:

When an aircraft starts its engine(s) for the purpose of taking off or when a non-powered aircraft first moves, until the moment engine(s) stop(s) operating or when a non-powered.

Aircraft comes to rest at the end of the flight.

When an aircraft first moves under its own or external power for the purpose of taking off until the moment it comes to rest at the end of the flight.

When an aircraft becomes completely airborne until the moment it finally touches the ground at landing.

10. Aircraft or personnel with endorsed certificates or licences may NOT participate in international navigation:

Under any circumstances.

Except with the permission of the State whose territory is entered.

Except when a general exemption has been awarded by any ICAO contracting state.

Except when a general exemption has been awarded by the State in which the aircraft is registered or which issued the licence.

11. Which of the following statements concerning the theoretical knowledge examinations for the issue of EASA FCL license is correct?

Applicant has successfully completed theoretical knowledge exams if he/she passes 75% of examination papers.

All exams shall be completed within 12 months.

All exams shall be completed under the responsibility of one Member State.

There are no limitations on how many times you can retake the examination paper.

12. When two aircraft are approaching each other head-on and there is a danger of collision, which way should each aircraft turn?

Heavier aircraft should turn to the left, easier aircraft should turn to the right.

Heavier aircraft should turn to the right, easier aircraft should turn to the left.

Each aircraft should turn to the left.

Each aircraft should turn to the right.

13. What was the outcome of the Chicago Convention?

ICAO and EASA.

The 18 Annexes to the Chicago Convention.

PICAO.

The Convention on International Civil Aviation.

14. Maximum validity of the EASA LAPL/PPL pilot licence is:

2 years.

It is not limited.

5 years.

3 years.

15. According to the rules of air, series of white flashes to an aircraft on the ground mean:

Cleared for taxiing. Clearance for take-off is given separetely.

Land at this aerodrome and proceed to apron. Clearance to land is given separately.

Return to starting point on the aerodrome.

Taxi clear of landing are in use.

16. What color are paved taxiway markings?

Red.

White.

Green.

Yellow.

17. What word is used to describe the vertical position of an aircraft measured above an airfield datum level, when QFE is set on the altimeter subscale?

Elevation.

Flight Level.

Height.

Altitude.

18. Mandatory instructions, for example holding position signs are:

White inscription on red background

Black inscription on yellow background

Yellow inscription on black background

Red inscirption on white background

19. Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by:

Alternate red and green lights.

Blue omnidirectional lights.

Yellow directional light.

White directional light.

20. You notice right after departure that your radio is broken. Tower shows series of white flashes to you. What does this mean?

Land at this aerodrome and proceed to apron.

Aerodrome unsafe, do not land.

Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.

Return for landing.

21. In the signal area of an aerodrome, a double white cross (Picture H) means: (see LAPL/PPL 010-04)

Take special care during approach and landing!

Caution, sailplanes in the air!

Landing prohibited, the airport is not safe!

Ground taxiing permitted outside runway and taxiways!

22. When are navigation lights required to be used?

From sunset to sunrise or when specified by the Authority.

Whenever the pilot in command thinks it is sensible to switch them on.

At night or when specified by the authority.

When moving on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome.

23. Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include:

The designation of an alternate airport.

An alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.

A study of arrival procedures at airports/ heliports of intended use.

A study of departure procedures at airports/ heliports of intended use.

24. If a LAPL/PPL holder receives a Special VFR clearance to enter a control zone (CTR) but, before entering the CTR, finds that she/he can no longer receive or transmit RT messages, she/he must:

Carry on into the CTR and await light signals for clearance to land.

Remain clear of the CTR.

Carry on into the CTR, complying with the last clearance received while transmitting blind.

Carry on into the CTR via the assigned Visual Reference Point complying with the last clearance received.

25. What Medical Certificate is required for a student pilot (PPL)?

Class A or Class B Medical Certificate.

Class 1 Medical Certificate only.

Class 2 Medical Certificate only.

Class 1 or Class 2 Medical Certificate.

26. Arrow search and rescue ground signal symbolizes:

Require medical assistance

Require assistance

Arrow is not a search and rescue ground signal

Proceeding in this direction

27. Uncertainty phase means:

A situation wherein exists uncertainty about the safety of an aircraft and íts occupants, or there exists other reasons to take actions in order to make sure if there is a need for help.

A situation wherein exists certainty about the safety of an aircraft and íts occupants, or there exists other reasons to take actions in order to make sure if there is a need for help.

A situation wherein an aircraft has not send requested location.

None of the alternatives is correct.

28. "V" search and rescue ground signal in the scene of accident symbolizes:

Require medical assistance

Require assistance

Assistance is not required

We stay here

29. At least how many hours of flying experience as a pilot of the aircraft must an applicant have for a LAPL(A)?

30

40

25

35

30. At least how many hours of dual instruction on an aircraft must an applicant have for a LAPL(A)?

20

25

15

10

31. If the holder of a pilot's licence learns that she/he is to undergo surgery, what are her/his obligations in terms of informing the aviation medical authority?

She/he has no obligations to tell anyone as this is a private matter.

She/he should advise the medical authority of the circumstances only if she/he is due to receive a general anesthetic.

She/he should contact his aviation medical authority without delay and seek their advice on her/his circumstances.

There is no requirement to do so provided the pilot does not fly again as pilot in command until after the surgical operation.

32. Which classes of medical certificate meet the requirement for a PART-FCL PPL?

Class 1 or 2.

Class A or B.

Class B or C.

Class 2 or 3.

33. What actions should the pilots of aircraft take if on head-on collision course?

Both should turn to the left.

Both should make a climbing turn to the right.

Both should make a climbing turn to the left.

Both should turn to the right.

34. In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to determine:

Runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.

Check CVR funtion prior departure.

Check the accuracy of the navigational equipment and the emergency locator transmitter (ELT).

Review traffic control light signal procedures.

35. A pilot's licence issued by one EASA member State may be converted to a licence of any other EASA member State (the new member State), provided that:

The licence holder intends to follow a course of study in the new Member State lasting at least three months.

The new Member State is the licence holder's normal State of residence or that full-time employment has been taken by the licence holder in that State.

The licence holder has resided in the new Member State for at least 31 days.

The new Member State has no reasonable grounds for refusing to convert the licence.

36. During a cross-country flight you notice the military aircraft approaching your left wingtip and flying along; after a short time it makes an abrupt break-away maneuver of a climbing turn to the left. What does this mean?

You have been intercepted. Follow me!

Land at the aerodrome in the direction of my flight!

Leave the prohibited area immediately!

You may proceed!

37. Illustration A indicates that the aircraft is (see LAPL/PPL 010-03):

On the glide slope.

Above the glide slope

Off course to the right.

Below the glide slope.

38. The departure and arrival time entered by a LAPL/PPL holder in her/his flying log book is taken as follows:

The time of engine start and the time of engine shut-down.

The time of the first take-off and the time of the last landing of the sortie.

The time the aircraft begins to move under its own power and the time it comes to rest following the last

The time the aircraft enters the active runway for the first take-off and the time it vacates the runway after the last landing.

39. Aircraft can be registered to Finland if:

The aircraft has type approval from FAA

The aircraft has certificate of airworthiness that is given in Finland

The aircraft is registered to other country

The aircraft is in Finland

40. What should a holder of a medical certificate do, when she/he becomes aware of hospital admission of more than 12 hours, surgical operation/invasive procedure, the regular use of medication or the regular use of correcting lenses?

The holder must pass the aviation medical exam again.

The holder must, without undue delay, seek aero-medical advice.

The holder must inform the CAA within the period of 21 days.

The holder can continue flying with pilot's own discretion.

41. In the signal area of an aerodrome, a red square with a single yellow diagonal strip (Picture B) means: (see LAPL/PPL 010-04)

Do not land.

Gliders are operating.

Take special care when landing because of the poor state of the manoeuvring area.

Helicopters are operating.

42. An aircraft and another airplane, towing a glider, are on crossing courses. If the aerotow is on the left of the aircraft, which has the right-of-way?

Depends on the magnetic heading of separate aircraft.

Both aircrafts.

The aircraft in free flight.

The aerotow.

43. When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot:

Should not stop before the lines without ATC clearance.

Should not cross the lines without ATC clearance.

May continue taxiing.

Should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines.

44. No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the:

Ground visibility at that airport is at least 1.5 km.

Ground visibility at that airport is at least 3.0 km.

Ground visibility at that airport is at least 5.0 km.

Flight visibility at that airport is at least 1.5 km.

45. A white cross, placed horizontally on the beginning of the taxiway (picture G), means: (see LAPL/PPL 010-04)

Caution, you are approaching the intersection with the runway!

Helicopter landing area!

Taxiway/runway unserviceable!

Caution, you are approaching the intersection with other taxiway!

46. The pilot of an aircraft taking-off from an airfield where the altimeter setting is not readily available, shall set the aircraft altimeter to:

The elevation of the airfield.

The altimeter setting of the nearest controlled airport.

The altitude zero.

1013.2 hpa.

47. The one takeoff and landing during the last 90 days that are required to act as pilot of an aircraft, in case carrying passengers at night, must be done during the time period from the:

The end of evening civil twilight when the centre of the sun's disc is 6 degrees below the horizon to the beginning of morning civil twilight when the centre of the sun's disc is 6 degrees below the horizon.

Sunrise to sunset.

1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.

Sunset to sunrise.

48. Which of the following describes threshold lights?

Green omni-directional

Red omni-directional

Green unidirectional

Red unidirectional

49. In ICAO emergency phases, alert phase means:

A situation wherein aircraft has not arrived to destination aerodrome within 30 minutes after estimated arrival time, and when there is no radio contact to the the aircraft

A situation wherein it is certain that an aircraft does not require instant assistance

A situation wherein aircraft's performance has declined so that emergency landing is probable

A situation wherein the state of the aircraft is unknown

50. If an aircraft does not give landing report agreed in the flight plan within 30 minutes from landing, the situation is called:

Distress phase

State of emergency

Uncertainty phase

Alert phase

51. Series of green flashes to aircraft in flight mean:

Cleared to land

Continue orbiting

Return for landing

Give way to other aircraft and continue circling

52. Which aircraft must give way when two airplanes are converging at the same altitude?

The aircraft on the right.

The aircraft which has another aircraft at her/his right side.

The ultralight aircraft.

Bigger aircraft.

53. Pilots are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during:

Flight in turbulent air.

Takeoffs and landings.

Level flight.

All flight conditions.

54. Application for the grant of a EASA LAPL/PPL licence must be made within ____ completing the theoretical knowledge examinations.

24.

36.

18.

12.

55. In the signal area of an aerodrome, a sign (Picture I), means: (see LAPL/PPL 010- 04)

Parking site to the right.

After landing vacate the runway by right turn.

Turns are to be made to the right before landing and after take-off.

Continue to the next airport, the runway is closed.

56. In the signal area of an aerodrome, a white dumb-bell with black stripes on each circular portion at right angles to the shaft (Picture E) means: (see LAPL/PPL 010-04)

Caution, gliders in the air.

Landing prohibited for prolonged period.

Landing, takeoff, and taxiing confined to runway and taxiways only.

Aircraft are required to land and take off on runways only, but other manoeuvres need not be confined to runways and taxiways.

57. What action should a pilot take if she/he suffers radio communications failure during a VFR flight in VMC?

Continue to his destination, transmitting blind and attempting to avoid IMC.

Carry out the radio failure procedure in the RAF Flight Information Handbook and await the arrival of a Shepherd aircraft.

Fly to the nearest aerodrome, orbit on the dead side of the circuit and await a steady green from the control tower.

Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and report his arrival to his destination airfield.

58. An applicant for a LAPL/PPL must be at least ____ years old.

18.

17.

15.

16.

59. The validity of a private pilot licence is determined by the validity of:

The ratings contained therein and the Medical Certificate.

The Medical Certificate only.

It is valid eternally after completion of required skill test.

The licence itself, as endorsed in the licence.

60. An ATC clearance provides:

Adequate separation from all traffic.

Authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.

Priority over all other traffic.

Adequate separation from VFR traffic.

61. When should the pressure in the barometric subscale of an aircraft altimeter be set?

Each morning before first flight.

Monthly.

Yearly.

Before each flight and in the air, if necessary.

62. The air traffic control can use light signals when radio communications are not possible. For an aircraft on ground, a red flashing light means:

Stop

Taxi clear from landing area in use

Vacate manouvering area in accordance with local instructions

Permission to cross landing area or to move onto taxiway

63. Abbreviation for terminal control area is:

TMA

CTA

CTS

FIR

64. Abbreviation VMC means:

Instrument flight rules

Instrument meteorological conditions

Visual flight rules

Visual meteorological conditions

65. What is the definition of the term "Controlled Airspace"?

An airspace within which air traffic control services are not provided.

Airspace immediately above an airport with more than one runway.

Airspace of defined dimensions within which all aircrafts are controlled.

Airspace around an airport.

66. SEP (single engine piston) class rating is valid:

3 years

1 year

5 years

2 years

67. What action should be taken if a pilot receives a clearance that will cause a deviation from a rule?

Refuse the clearance as stated and request that it be amended.

Accept the clearance and advise Air Traffic Control when deviation occurs.

Accept the clearance and advise Air Traffic Control that he believes a rule deviation will occur.

Accept the clearance, because the pilot is not responsible for the deviation.

68. An aircraft is cleared by ATC to "maintain 3000 feet or below in terminal area". The responsibility for ensuring adequate terrain clearance rests with:

ATC and the aircraft commander.

Finnish Civil Aviation Authority.

ATC only.

The aircraft commander.

69. At the scene of an aircraft accident, a survivor has made a ground signal showing a large cross with angles of 90° between the arms of the cross. What does this mean?

Require assistance.

All survivors are uninjured.

This is our position.

Require medical assistance.

70. Estimated time of arrival in VFR flight means time, when:

The aircraft is estimated to land to the destination aerodrome

The aircraft is estimated to vacate the runway of the destination aerodrome

The aircraft is estimated to stop taxiing at the destination aerodrome

The aircraft is estimated to arrive over the destination aerodrome

71. What is the meaning of a double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area? (See annex LAPL/PPL 010-02)

"Closed runways or taxiways."

"Glider flights in operation."

"Prohibition of landing."

"Cleared to land."

72. Runway end lights are:

Blue

Red

Green

White

73. "X" search and rescue ground signal symbolizes:

Require medical assistance

Require assistance

Assistance is not required

We stay here

74. Illustration B indicates that the aircraft is (see LAPL/PPL 010-03):

Above the glide slope.

On the glide slope.

Below the glide slope.

Off course to the left.

75. When approaching to land at an airport without an operating control tower in Class G airspace, the pilot should:

Enter and fly a traffic pattern at 800 feet AAL

Make all turns to the right, unless otherwise indicated.

Fly a left-hand traffic pattern at 800 feet AAL.

Make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated.

76. As a substitute for the proficiency check with an examiner, what minimum flight time and what number of takeoffs and landing is required for the revalidation of a single pilot single engine airplane class rating?

12 hours of flight time within 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating, including 5 hours of pilot-in-command time, and 5 takeoffs and landings.

12 hours of flight time within 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating, including 6 hours of pilot-in-command time, and 12 takeoffs and 12 landings.

5 hours of flight time within 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating, including 6 hours of pilot-in-command time, and 12 takeoffs and 12 landings.

10 hours of flight time within 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating, including 6 hours of pilot-in-command time, and 12 takeoffs and 12 landings.

77. At least how long must the cross-country flight, required for the eligibility for the Light Aircraft Pilot Licence skill test, be and how many full stop landings at different aerodromes must be made at this flight?

100 NM; 2 landings.

80 NM; 2 landings.

80 NM; 1 landing.

150 NM; 1 landing.

78. What is the meaning of a steady green light from ATC to an aircraft in the air?

Land immediately.

Clear to land.

Return to this airfield and await landing clearance.

You have priority to land.

79. Which of the following statements, concerning heavier-than-air aircraft right-of- way during landing, is correct?

Aircraft in final stage of an approach to land or which is first in an airport traffic circuit, has the right-of-way over all other aircraft.

Aircraft which is the highest has the right-of-way over all other aircraft with the exception of turbojet aircraft, which has the right-of-way over propeller aircraft.

Aircraft which is the highest has the right-of-way over all other aircraft with the exception of turboprob aircraft, which has the right-of-way over propeller aircraft.

Aircraft at higher level shall give way to aircraft at lower level, but the latter shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of another which is in the final stage of an approach to land, or to overtake that aircraft.

80. A pilot in command of a flight during which an aircraft enters the sovereign airspace of a foreign state with the intention of landing:

Must ensure before departure that his pilot's licence has been validated by the foreign state.

Must ensure that aircraft is equipped with operational radio and transponder.

Must be satisfied that the aircraft's Certificate of Airworthiness is current, that he holds a type rating for the aircraft, and that he has passed an Air Law examination set by the foreign state.

Must have ensured that all necessary and relevant documentation is carried on board the aircraft, including the Certificate of Airworthiness, that the aircraft is in an airworthy condition and that it is correctly registered.

81. How many hours of total flying hours, required for the practical skill test for an issue of a Private Pilot Licence, may be completed on a Flight & Navigation Procedures Trainer or Simulator?

7.

10.

5.

15.

82. What SSR squawk should be set in an emergency?

7777

7600

7700

7000

83. A LAPL/PPL pilot who is flying in accordance with Special VFR must have the following minima:

A minimum visibility of 10 km or more and remain in sight of the surface.

A minimum visibility of 5 km or more and remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface.

A minimum visibility of 1,5 km or more and remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface.

A minimum visibility of 3,0 km or more and remain clear of cloud.

84. Abbreviation for control zone is:

AFIS

FIR

CTR

TMA

85. At least how long must the cross-country flight, required for the eligibility for the Private Pilot Licence skill test, be and how many full stop landings at different aerodromes must be made at this flight?

100 NM; 4 landings.

200 NM; 4 landings.

100 NM; 2 landings.

150 NM; 2 landings.

86. What is the definition of "Transition level''?

The lowest available Flight Level above the transition altitude.

The transition altitude expressed as a Flight Level.

The Flight Level below which the vertical position of an aircraft is expressed as "height".

The Flight Level at or above which the vertical position of an aircraft is expressed as altitude.

87. An accident must be reported if it happens between the time that the first person boards an aircraft and until the time that everyone has left the aircraft. Which of the following accidents must NOT be reported?

A passenger dies from natural causes.

Anyone is killed or seriously injured while in or on the aircraft.

The aircraft is completely inaccessible or missing.

The aircraft incurs damage or structural failure.

88. How long is a EASA PPL(A)/PPL(H) issued for?

3 years.

8 years.

5 years.

Indefinitely.

89. To act as pilot-in-command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the LAPL/PPL holder must have three takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90 days as the sole manipulator of the controls in an airplane the same:

Type, but not the class.

Class, but not the type.

Type or class.

Make and model.

90. What action should the pilots of an airplane or a helicopter and a glider take if on a head-on collision course?

The airplane/helicopter pilot should give way.

The airplane/helicopter pilot should give way, because his aircraft is more controllable.

The glider pilot should give way, because a glider is more controllable than an airplane/a helicopter.

Both pilots should give way to the right.

91. A slightly high-glide-slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is:

Three white lights and one red light.

Four white lights.

Two white lights and two red lights.

Four red lights.

92. What is the meaning of "WIP"?

Weight increase procedure.

With effect from.

Work in progress.

With permission.

93. Low intensity obstacle lights on fixed objects shall be:

Flashing red

Fixed red.

Fixed orange

Flashing yellow

94. The skill tests for a class or type rating must be taken within ____ of completing flying instruction.

4 months.

3 months.

6 months.

One year.

95. Which aircraft speed should be entered into the "Cruising Speed" block of an ICAO Flight Plan?

Ground Speed.

Indicated Air Speed.

Calibrated Air Speed.

True Air Speed.

96. Which of the cruising flight level listed is appropriate for a VFR flight over 3,000 ft MSL, while maintaining true course 170° and if the local variation value is 20°W?

FL 40.

FL 65.

FL 30.

FL 55.

97. The controlled airspace, extending from the surface to the specified altitude, is the:

Control area.

Terminal control area.

Control zone.

Flight information region.

98. The vertical limits of a control zone are:

From GND to the bottom limit of a terminal area.

From the surface to the defined FL.

From the surface to 900m MSL.

From the surface to the defined altitude.

99. Two aircraft flying according to the Visual Flight Rules, are closing at an apparent constant relative bearing. The aircraft which has the right of way should maintain:

Altitude and course.

Heading and speed.

Altitude and speed.

Height and speed.

100. What should the glider pilot do, if the glider is on head-on collision course with the two-engined Cessna?

She/he should open the air brakes immediately, because a multi-engine airplane has the right-of-way.

She/he may maintain heading and speed, because a glider has always the right-of-way, however he should pay extra attention.

She/he should deviate to the right.

She/he should deviate to the left thus giving way to the airplane.

101. When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 10,000 ft up to and including 13,000 ft MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used by all crew members:

Under PIC's dicretion

That flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes.

The entire flight time at those altitudes.

That flight time in excess of 10 minutes at those altitudes.

102. A slightly below-glide-slope indication from a Precission approach path indicator system is a:

Three red light indication.

Three white and one red lights indication.

Three red and one white lights indication.

Three white light indication.

103. What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?

Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway.

Denotes entrance to runway from apron

Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway.

Denotes intersecting runways.

104. While flying at night, as the pilot in command, you see an anti-collision light and a steady red light at the same altitude, at a constant relative bearing of 050 degrees, there is a risk of collision? And who has right of way?

Yes. You do.

No. You do.

Yes. The other aircraft does.

No. The other aircraft does.

105. The pilot in command of an aircraft which enters the sovereign airspace of another contracting state for the purpose of landing must:

Hold any valid and current pilot's licence.

Hold a licence issued by any ICAO contracting state.

Hold a licence issued or accepted by the authority of the state in which the aircraft is registered.

Hold a licence issued by any member state of the JAA.

106. How long is the period, before the expiry date of a single pilot single engine rating, during which a proficiency check for a revalidation may be done?

2 months.

3 months.

15 days.

1 month.

107. To act as pilot in command of an airplane carrying passengers, the holder of LAPL/PPL must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an airplane of the same class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the preceding:

3 calendar months.

12 calendar months.

90 days

24 calendar months.

108. A night flying inside the territory of Finland is defined by the state regulations as a flying between:

30 minutes before sunset and 30 minutes after sunrise.

60 minutes before sunset and 60 minutes after sunrise.

The end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.

30 minutes after sunset and 30 minutes before sunrise.

109. The Rules of the Air applicable to an aircraft registered in one state flying over another state shall be:

Those of the state of the visiting aircraft.

Those stipulated by JAA operational procedures.

Those of the state whose airspace is entered and transited.

Those agreed by ICAO contracting states to apply in all contracting states.

110. Aircraft A with an ATC clearance is flying in VMC conditions within a control area. Aircraft B with no ATC clearance is approaching at approximately the same altitude and on a converging course. Which has the right of way?

Aircraft A regardless of the direction which B is approaching.

Aircraft B regardless of the direction A is approaching.

Aircraft A if B is on its right.

Aircraft B if A is on its left.

111. What marking may be displayed by day on an aerodrome to indicate unserviceability of any portion of a manoeuvring area?

White and orange cones bordering the unserviceable area.

Orange flags bordering the unserviceable area.

Crosses of single conspicuous color (preferably white) displayed horizontally.

Large red squares with yellow diagonal markings displayed horizontally.

112. Which right is conferred on contracting states by Article 16 of the ICAO Convention?

The right to search an aircraft from another contracting state landing on or departing from its sovereign territory if it is felt that the aircraft is carrying unlawful goods or persons being pursued in law.

The right to search, without unreasonable delay, an aircraft from another contracting state landing on or departing from its sovereign territory.

The right to search an aircraft from another contracting state landing on or departing from its sovereign territory, given due cause.

The right to search, with the permission of the pilot in command, an aircraft from another contracting state landing on or departing from its sovereign territory.

113. Which of the following cases constitutes an aircraft accident?

A lightning strike on an aircraft in flight.

The injury of a person on the ground after being struck by any part of an aircraft which had detached from the aircraft while it was airborne but where the safety of the aircraft was not necessarily compromised.

A burst main gear or tailwheel tyre during the take-off or landing roll.

An engine failure in flight.

114. Illustration C indicates that the aircraft is (see LAPL/PPL 010-03):

Below the glide slope.

Off course to the left.

On the glide slope.

Above the glide slope.

115. A VFR flight should adhere to the table of prescribed flight level at flight altitudes when flying higher than:

3,000 ft GND.

2,200 ft GND.

700 ft MSL.

3,000 ft MSL.

116. If a pilot has to deviate from an air traffic control clearance due to unforseen circumstances, she/he has to:

Notify the competent ATC unit without delay and obtain an amended ATC clearance.

Transmit a general call giving all details concerning her/his deviation from the ATC clearance.

Inform all ATC stations concerned by transmitting a multiple call.

Notify the Aeronautical Information Service.

117. What color are runway markings?

Yellow.

White.

Green.

Red.

118. An above-glide-slope indication from PAPI is:

Four red lights signal.

Three white lights and two red light signal.

Four white lights signal.

Two white lights and two red light signal.

119. Red pyrotechnic for an aircraft in flight means:

Caution, military exercises in the area.

Orbit right until you get landing clearance.

Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being

Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.

120. When an aircraft is flying, under which flight rules must the flight be conducted?

Either IMC or VMC.

IFR in IMC and VFR in VMC.

In accordance with ATC instructions.

Either IFR or VFR.

121. In which regulation series regulations concerning personnel licensing are?

TRG

PEL

OPS

GEN

122. Flight visibility defined as:

The forward horizontal visibility from the cockpit during a flight

Defined visibility in aerodrome made by legal observer

Maximum distance from which an aircraft can be observed

Maximum distance from which big enough dark object can be observed and identified when observation is made against enlightned background

123. If a pilot holding a medical certificate issued under the authority of EASA-FCL receives an injury or is suffering from a medical condition which affects her/his ability to act as the crew member of an aircraft:

The medical certificate will be suspended after 25 days following the date of the injury or onset of the illness unless the pilot has again been declared fit.

The medical certificate will be suspended if the illness or injury has been reported to the authority.

The medical certificate ceases to be valid.

The medical certificate will remain valid.

124. You are on final approach and you see a steady red light from ATC. This means:

Do not land. Divert to your alternate airfield.

Do not land. Airfield closed.

Continue approach and await a green light.

Continue circling, give way to other aircraft.

125. What Medical Certificate is required for a student pilot (LAPL)?

Class 1 Medical Certificate only.

Class LAPL Medical Certificate only.

Class 1, Class 2 or LAPL Medical Certificate.

Class A or Class B Medical Certificate.

126. The holder of a EASA LAPL/PPL who wishes to carry passengers must have made a minimum of take-offs and landings within the preceding:

90 days.

31 days.

60 days.

29 days.

127. When overtaking an aircraft in flight, you should:

Alter your course to the left.

Alter your course to the right.

Fly below or above it.

Fly below it exclusively.

128. What is the international Aeronautical VHF Distress Frequency?

406.00 MHz

123.45 MHz

243.00 MHz

121.50 MHz

129. Which of the following normally defines 'runway in use ' on an uncontrolled airfield?

The defined takeoff and landing portion of an aerodrome.

A runway into the downwind.

A runway into a headwind.

A part of the maneuvering area defined for takeoff and landing.

130. On the controlled airport you noticed a square yellow board bearing a black "C", exposed above one of the doors (Picture C). What does that mean? (see LAPL/PPL 010-04)

Exit for private aircraft crew.

Staff exit.

Customs office.

Air traffic services reporting office.

131. An aircraft marshaller extends his right arm and wand in 90 degree angle from body and make "come ahead" signal with his left arm, that means: (See annex LAPL/PPL 010-01)

Turn right.

Start your engine.

Keep moving ahead.

Turn left.

132. Estimated off-block time means time, when the aircraft:

Gets taxiing clearance

Departures

Will commence taxiing associated with departure

Gets takeoff clearance

133. Who may not suspend VFR operations at an aerodrome on safety grounds?

The local Area Control Centre (ACC).

The appropriate ATS authority.

The Approach Controller.

The duty Aerodrome Controller.

134. A Control Area (CTA) established at the confluence of ATS routes in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes is known as:

An Airway.

A Control Zone (CTR).

An Aerodrome Traffic Zone (ATZ).

A Terminal Control Area (TMA).

135. If a LAPL/PPL holder, who has no additional ratings, while receiving a Radar Advisory Service, receives instructions to change heading, climb or descend, such that if the instructions are complied with the pilot will be unable to maintain Visual Meteorological Conditions, the pilot should:

Continue on present heading and at present altitude, say nothing, and wait for the controller's next instruction.

Comply as closely as he can with the controller's instructions but on no account go into Instrument Meteorological Conditions.

Comply with instructions, anyway, but go onto instruments early.

Continue on the present heading, at the present altitude, and tell air traffic why he cannot comply.

136. If you have not received other instructions, after departure you:

Make turns right

Make turns right or left

Make turns left

Do not make turns until you are outside of the traffic circuit

137. Which of the following statements most correctly completes the following statement? When two or more aircraft are approaching same aerodrome for landing:

The lower aircraft always has the right of way.

The aircraft which has the least horizontal distance to run to the runway threshold has the right of way.

The lower aircraft has the right of way unless ATC has already specified a landing order.

The higher aircraft always has the right of way.

138. When a pilot of an aircraft is utilizing a precission approach path indicator (PAPI) in approach, he or she shall:

Keep 4 red lights during approach.

Maintain an altitude at below the glide slope.

Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.

Stay high until the runway can be reached in a power-off landing.

139. There are three conditions that a holder of a EASA PPL(A) / PPL(H) must fulfill before he/she may act as pilot in command, or as a co-pilot. Which of the following is not a requirement?

Holds a valid medical certificate.

Holds an Instrument Rating.

Holds a Type or Class rating pertinent to the aircraft to be flown.

Is not flying for remuneration.

140. The minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight in class G airspace at altitudes above 300 m from ground or 900 m MSL, whichever is higher, is:

1,500 m.

Clear of cloud and with the surface in sight.

300 m.

8,000 m.

141. You notice a military aircraft on your left side. The aircraft is rocking and after that it makes a slow level turn to the left. You respond by:

Flashing navigational lights and selecting frequency 119,7 MHz.

Rocking aircraft and following.

Squaking 7500 and continue flight normally.

Rocking aircraft and continue flight normally.

142. How long are single pilot single engine class ratings valid?

1 year.

2 years.

3 years.

6 months.

143. Flight time during which the flight instructor will only observe the student acting as pilot-in-command and shall not influence or control the flight of the aircraft is:

Solo flight time.

Solo flight time under supervision.

Flight time as pilot-in-command.

Flight time as student pilot-in-command (SPIC).

144. VFR approaches to land at night should be accomplished:

The same as during daytime.

At a higher groundspeed.

At a higher airspeed

With a steeper descent

145. An on-glide-slope indication from PAPI is:

Four red light signal.

Three white and one red light signal.

Four white light signal.

Two red and two white light signal.

146. Series of red flashes to an aircraft in flight mean:

Continue circling

Notwithstanding any previous instructions, do not land for the time being

Aerodrome unsafe, do not land

Leave the traffic circuit

147. Manouvering area includes:

Runways, taxiways and aprons

Runways, taxiways and ramps

All parts of the movement area including the routes on the area

Runways and takiways, excluding apron

148. At least how many hours of flying experience as a pilot of the aircraft must an applicant have for a Private Pilot Licence?

45 hours.

40 hours.

35 hours.

50 hours.

149. What does "AAL" mean?

Angle of attack limitation.

Above aerodrome level.

Acknowledge.

Aerodrome altitude level.

150. How long is an Instrument Rating valid for?

12 months.

6 months.

The IR is valid provided regular skill tests are completed at intervals dictated by the authority.

18 months.

151. A below-glide-slope indication from PAPI is:

Two red lights and two white lights signal.

Four red lights signal.

Three red lights and two white lights signal.

Four red light and one white light signal.

152. In the signal area of an aerodrome, a white dumb-bell (Picture D) means: (see LAPL/PPL 010-04)

Do not land.

Land on hard surfaces only.

Landing direction is parallel with the shafts towards the cross-arm.

Aircraft are required to land, take off and taxi on runways and taxiways only.

153. Minimum altitude (excluding landing and departure) over congested areas is:

500 ft above the highest obstacle within radius of 600 meters

1000 ft above the highest obstacle within radius of 600 meters

500 ft MSL

1000 ft MSL

154. What should be entered into the "LEVEL" block of an ICAO VFR Flight Plan?

Either the word "VFR" or the proposed cruising altitude.

The proposed cruising altitudes.

It is left blank for VFR flights.

The phrase "VFR: variable".

155. In Finland transition altitude is:

500 m QNH

5000 ft QFE

5000 ft QNH

5000 ft 1013 hPa

156. A LAPL/PPL holder is not permitted to:

Drop parachutists.

Give flying instruction with an FI(A) rating.

Tow a glider.

Carry fare paying passengers.

157. What is the meaning of the visual ground signal in a form of a horizontal red square panel with yellow diagonals displayed in an airport signal area (Picture A)? (see LAPL/PPL 010-04)

Landings are prohibited.

Area unfit for movement of aircraft.

Special precautions must be observed in approaching to land or in landing.

Aircraft are required to land, takeoff and taxi on runways and taxiways only.

158. An airspace of defined dimensions above the land or water areas where flights are never allowed is called:

Terminal area.

Restricted zone.

Control zone.

Prohibited airspace.

159. Requested national mark of an aircraft registered in Finland is:

The letters O and H.

A random four-placed number.

The country flag of Finland.

A fife-placed mark consisting of a certain combination of letters.

160. Series of green flashes to an aircraft on the ground mean:

Cleared for take-off.

Contact tower immediately.

Cleared to taxi.

Return to starting point on the aerodrome.

161. The accuracy of an altimeter is checked by:

Low-passing near towers with known height.

Cross-checking of flight altitudes and altitudes from an aeronautical geographical chart 1:500 000.

Setting the altimeter to QNH and checking the elevation reading while on ground.

Cross-checking of altimeter readings and radioaltimeter readings.

162. What word is used to describe the vertical position of an aircraft measured above mean sea level, when QNH is set on the altimeter subscale?

Flight level.

Height.

Elevation.

Altitude.

163. In which of the following cases should the aviation medical certificate deem to be suspended?

Any illness involving incapacity to his functions as a member of flight crew throughout a period of 21 days or more, or any significant personal injury involving incapacity to undertake his functions as a member of the flight crew.

Any surgical operation or invasive procedure.

Any surgical operation or invasive procedure and pregnancy.

All answers are correct.

164. What does the term "solo flight time" mean?

Flight time as a pilot-in-command.

Solo flight time of a student-pilot.

Entire flight time when a pilot is alone in the aircraft.

Entire flight time, when a pilot is alone in the aircraft, and 50% of the co-pilot flight time.

165. Which of the aircraft listed has always the right-of-way over all other participants in air traffic?

An aircraft in distress.

A balloon.

An aircraft in final approach for landing.

Helicopter.

166. How often are Aeronautical Information Circulars published?

Quarterly.

Yearly.

On demand.

Weekly.

167. How many Annexes ICAO Convention contains?

3

36

18

96

168. When may you fly over any congested area of a city, town or settlement at a height from which it would not be possible to land safely in the event of an emergency arising?

Only when necessary for take-off and landing.

Only where the operator has given permission.

Never.

Only to keep clear of cloud and remain in visual contact with the ground.

169. Which aircraft, and under which conditions, may a holder of a LAPL/PPL fly, provided she/he is properly endorsed?

All aircrafts without exceptions provided no payment or refund is done for such flight.

All aircrafts up to the maximum takeoff mass 1,500 kg, provided no payment or refund is given to the pilot.

All single-engined aircrafts provided no payment or refund is done for such flight.

All aircrafts without exceptions provided no payment or refund is given to the pilot.

170. In the signal area of an aerodrome, a white "T" (Picture F) means: (see LAPL/PPL 010-04)

Do not land.

Land and taxi on hard surfaces only.

Land on hard surfaces only.

Landing and take-off direction is parallel with the shafts towards the cross-arm.

171. The Air Traffic Control may issue a permission for a SVFR flight:

For flying an airport traffic circuit inside the control zone only.

For flights overflying of the terminal zone.

For all flights in the restricted zone.

For flights entering or leaving the control zone only.

172. Which are the meteorological minima, that allow the tower to permit an SVFR flight in a control zone during daytime? The flight visibility must be at least:

800 m.

1,500 m.

5,000m.

1,200 m.

173. Choose correct answer. Except when a special VFR clearance is obtained, VFR flights shall NOT take off or land at an aerodrome within a control zone when the reported meteorological conditions at that aerodrome are:

Airspace is clear of clouds and 6.0 km visibility.

300 meter ceiling and 4 km visibility.

500 meter ceiling and 5.5 km visibility.

450 meter ceiling and 8.0 km visibility.

174. A light aircraft is taking off behind a Heavy or Medium category aircraft. What period of separation is required?

2 minutes.

4 minutes.

6 minutes.

5 minutes.

175. Except when taking off or landing, or under certain other defined circumstances, a VFR flight shall not be flown lower than ____ above the ground or water, or 150m above the highest obstacle within a radius of ____ from the aircraft.

1000 ft / 500 ft.

500 ft / 500 ft.

800 ft / 1000 ft.

1500 ft / 1000 ft.

176. Which of the following is NOT a Search & Rescue Alerting phase?

Urgency phase.

Distress phase.

Uncertainty phase.

Alert Phase.

177. Controlled flight is:

A flight that is operated according to IFR

A flight operated in formation

A flight with a flight plan

A flight that operates under ATC clearance

178. Who is responsible for the issue of a Certificate of Airworthiness?

The authority of the state of registration.

ICAO.

The operator.

EASA.

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