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Microbio Revision
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Last updated: October 29, 2024
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| First submitted | October 29, 2024 |
| Times taken | 21 |
| Average score | 5.5% | Report this quiz | Report |
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1. What can be a manifestation of Trichomonas vaginalis in males?
Dysuria
Frothy discharge
Painless ulcer
Vaginal irritation
2. Which of the following symptoms is associated with typhoid fever progression?
Hepatosplenomegaly
Severe dehydration within 24 hours
Erythema nodosum
Rapid onset of watery diarrhoea
3. What type of infection do neutrophils infiltrate the renal interstitium, leading to pyelonephritis?
Ascending infection
Hematogenous infection
Descending infection
Lymphatic infection
4. How is HPV primarily transmitted?
Contaminated food
Vector-borne transmission
Airborne droplets
Sexual contact and abrasions in skin
5. Which species of Shigella is primarily associated with watery diarrhoea?
Group B
Group A
Group C
Group D
6. Which of the following is a criterion for diagnosing bacterial vaginosis?
Presence of leukocyte casts
Thick, clumping discharge
Positive whiff test
pH < 4.5
7. Which clinical outcome is particularly associated with the presence of both the cagA and vacA genes in H.Pylori?
Pan-gastritis
Gastric ulceration
Duodenal ulceration
MALT lymphoma
8. Which syndrome is characterized by vomiting and abdominal cramps caused by Bacillus cereus?
Haemolytic syndrome
Emetic syndrome
Diarrhoeal syndrome
Toxic shock syndrome
9. What is a common diagnostic test for UTIs?
Blood culture
CT scan
Ultrasound
Urinalysis
10. What is the primary organism responsible for syphilis?
Mycoplasma hominis
Treponema pallidum
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Chlamydia trachomatis
11. Where are anogenital warts most commonly distributed in females?
Penile shaft
Glans penis
Labia, inner thigh
Perineum, vagina, cervix
12. In diagnosing pyelonephritis, which finding is most indicative?
Normal WBC count
No urgency or dysuria
Negative urinalysis
Presence of leukocyte casts
13. Which of the following characteristics describes H.Pylori?
Gram-negative, microaerophilic, Urease +ve
Gram-negative, aerobic, Urease +ve
Gram-positive, aerobic, Urease -ve
Gram-positive, microaerophilic, Urease +ve
14. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of primary herpes simplex infection?
Inguinal lymphadenopathy
Fever
Punctate haemorrhages
Dysuria
15. Which symptom is commonly associated with cystitis?
Fever and chills
Nausea and vomiting
Flank pain
Suprapubic pain
16. How is Trichomonas vaginalis commonly diagnosed?
First-pass urine
High vaginal swab
Blood test
Serological test
17. What is the recommended treatment for a primary herpes simplex infection?
Metronidazole
Ceftriaxone
Aciclovir
Trimethoprim
18. Which Chlamydia trachomatis strain causes trachoma?
M-N
L
D-K
A-C
19. Which of the following characteristics describes Salmonella?
Gram +ve, lactose fermenting
Gram -ve, lactose fermenting
Gram +ve, non-lactose fermenting
Gram -ve, non-lactose fermenting
20. What is a common feature of bacterial vaginosis?
Frothy discharge
Fishy odor
Painless ulcer
Thin, white discharge
21. Which organism is commonly associated with catheter-related infections in hospitals?
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
E. coli
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
22. What is the primary manifestation of HPV?
Plantar warts
Flat warts
Epidermodysplasia verruciformis
Anogenital warts
23. What is the recommended diagnostic method for Chlamydia infections?
High vaginal swab
First-pass urine
Serology
PCR of lesion swab
24. What is a key symptom of vulvovaginal candidiasis?
Premature rupture of membranes
Fishy odor
Dysuria
Thin, white discharge
25. Which of the following diagnostic methods is NOT useful for assessing eradication of H.Pylori?
Faecal antigen test
Urea Breath test
Upper abdominal tenderness assessment
Serology
26. What is one mode of transmission for H.Pylori ?
Bloodborne transmission
Faecal-oral transmission
Vector-borne transmission
Airborne transmission
27. What is the first-line treatment for anogenital warts?
Oral antibiotics
Antiviral therapy
Surgical excision
Topical creams
28. What is a significant risk factor for urinary tract infections (UTIs)?
Shorter urethra in females
Increased fluid intake
Frequent urination
High oestrogen levels
29. What is a key complication of Clostridium infection?
Endocarditis
Reactive arthritis
Pseudomembranous colitis
Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome
30. Which bacterium is known for producing urease and is often associated with kidney stones?
E. coli
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Proteus mirabilis
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
31. Which of the following organisms is a Gram-negative, lactose-fermenting bacterium?
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Proteus mirabilis
E. coli
Klebsiella pneumoniae
32. What severe complication can result from non-typhoidal Salmonella bacteraemia?
Meningitis
Pneumonia
Hepatosplenomegaly
Reactive arthritis
33. What type of E. coli is a common cause of abrupt traveler's diarrhoea?
Enterotoxigenic (ETEC)
Enterohaemorrhagic (EHEC)
Enteroaggregative (EAEC)
Enteropathogenic (EPEC)
34. Which stage of syphilis is characterized by a painless ulcer?
Latent syphilis
Tertiary syphilis
Secondary syphilis
Primary syphilis
35. What syndrome should be monitored for in patients with Enterohaemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC)?
Toxic Shock Syndrome
Coeliac Disease
Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome
Reiter's Syndrome
36. Which HPV types are commonly associated with skin warts?
3, 6, 11
1, 2, 4
5, 8, 17
16, 18
37. What is a common symptom of anogenital warts in males?
Fever
Flank pain
Itching and burning
Vaginal discharge
38. What complication can result from untreated Chlamydia infection?
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Herpes
Gonorrhea
Syphilis
39. What is the primary mode of transmission for Listeria?
Vector-borne
Waterborne
Airborne
Contaminated food
40. What type of diarrhoea is primarily associated with cholera?
Watery diarrhoea
Persistent diarrhoea
Bloody diarrhoea
Large volumes of "Rice" water diarrhoea
41. What is a common presentation of gonorrhea in females?Fever and chills
Pruritus and thick discharge
Fever and chills
Flank pain
Dysuria and intermenstrual bleeding
42. What complication can arise from a herpes simplex virus infection?
Ectopic pregnancy
Urinary tract obstruction
Bacterial vaginosis
HSV meningitis
43. What is the primary clinical manifestation of Klebsiella granulomatis (Donovanosis)?
Beefy, painless lesion
Thick, white discharge
Frothy discharge
Painful ulcer
44. Which organism is known to mimic appendicitis in children due to ileocecitis?
Campylobacter
Salmonella
Shigella
Yersinia enterocolitica
45. What is the primary treatment for cystitis?
Cefalexin
Augmentin
Trimethoprim
Gentamicin
46. Which HPV type is most commonly linked to cervical cancer?
HPV 16
HPV 1
HPV 6
HPV 20
47. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
Dyspareunia
Fever
Cervical motion tenderness
Flank pain
48. Which complication is associated with Campylobacter infections?
Meningitis
Pseudomembranous colitis
Guillain-Barré syndrome
Toxic Shock Syndrome
49. What type of Salmonella infection primarily spreads from person to person?
Non-typhoidal Salmonella
Neither
Both non-typhoidal and typhoid
Typhoid Fever
50. What is a common condition associated with Staphylococcus saprophyticus?
Pyelonephritis
Honeymoon cystitis
Kidney stones
Yeast infections
51. Which organism is responsible for gonorrhoea?
Chlamydia trachomatis
Treponema pallidum
Herpes simplex virus
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
52. What is a complication associated with HPV infection?
Myocarditis
Conjunctivitis
Pneumonia
Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia
53. Which of the following pathophysiological mechanisms is associated with H. Pylori?
Destruction of intestinal villi
Inhibition of urea absorption
Increase in gastric acid production
Release of ammonia that neutralizes gastric pH
54. What is the primary treatment for severe disease caused by Shigella in immunocompromised patients?
Ciprofloxacin
Vancomycin
Ceftriaxone
Metronidazole
55. Which symptom is common in patients with non-typhoidal Salmonella infection?
High fever
Severe abdominal cramps
Skin rash
Watery stools
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