|
Location
|
|
Glycophorin A
|
MN
|
|
Glycophorin B
|
S
|
|
Band 3
|
Diego
|
|
AE1
|
Diego
|
|
Erythrocyte acetylcholinesterase
|
Cartwright
|
|
p chromosome X
|
Xg
|
|
SLC4A1
|
Diego
|
|
carried on ART4 by GPI anchor
|
Dombrock
|
|
AQP1
|
Colton
|
|
4th component of C4
|
Chido/Rodgers
|
|
Glycophorin C and/or D
|
Gerbich
|
|
CR1
|
Knops
|
|
Hematopoietic isoform of CD44 marker
|
Indian
|
|
CD147
|
Ok
|
|
basigin
|
Ok
|
|
CD151
|
Raph
|
|
Semaphorin 7A
|
JMH
|
|
CD108
|
JMH
|
|
AQP3
|
Gill
|
|
Chromosome 6
|
RHAG
|
|
HLA Class 1 on RBC
|
Bennett Good Speed Antigens
|
|
DAF
|
Cromer
|
|
CD55
|
Cromer
|
|
|
|
|
Antiglobulin Test
|
|
is an important technical aspect in the performance of an antiglobulin test.
|
Patent blue and ariavit tartrazine
|
|
Source of error in AHG: Improper specimen (refrigerated, clotted) may cause in vitro complement attachment
|
FP
|
|
Source of error in AHG: Cell suspension either too weak or too heavy
|
FN
|
|
Source of error in AHG: Inadequate or improper washing of cells
|
FN
|
|
Source of error in AHG: AHG reagent, test serum, or enhancement medium not added
|
FN
|
|
Source of error in AHG: Bacterial contamination of cells or saline used in washing.
|
FP
|
|
Source of error in AHG: AHG reagent nonreactive because of deterioration or neutralization (improper reagent storage)
|
FN
|
|
Source of error in AHG: Using a serum sample for a DAT
|
FP
|
|
Source of error in AHG: Cells with a positive DAT will yield a positive IAT.
|
FP
|
|
|
|
|
Detection and ID of Antibodies
|
|
22% albumin mechanism
|
decrease zeta potential
|
|
22% albumin incubation time
|
30-60 minutes
|
|
LISS mechanism
|
lower zeta potential and decrease ionic cloud increasing antibody uptake by RBCs
|
|
LISS incubation time
|
10-15 minutes
|
|
What does LISS contain making it low ionic?
|
0.2% sodium chloride
|
|
What does LISS contain that reduces zeta potential?
|
glycine or dextrose (glucose)
|
|
PEG mechanism
|
removes water from the test system
|
|
PEG incubation time
|
10-30 minutes
|
|
Most sensitive among all potentiators
|
PEG
|
|
Describe Coomb’s check cells
|
O+ coated with anti-D
|
|
pH of saline used in washing cell-serum mixture before performing AHG in test tube
|
7.2-7.4
|
|
What does LISS contain making it low ionic?
|
0.2% sodium chloride
|
|
Error if washing of cell-serum mixture is not done before AHG phase
|
FN
|
|
Simulate how Antibody Screening is done
|
2,1,c,o,p,i,o,w,2,c,o,CCC,o
|
|
Advantage of test tube method
|
flexibility, availability, cost
|
|
Disadvantage of test tube method
|
subjective
|
|
Advantage of gel technology and solid phase technology method
|
standardization
|
|
Disadvantage of gel technology and solid phase technology method
|
specialized instrument or equipment
|
|
Centrifugation time of gel technology
|
10 minutes at 910 rpm
|
|
Incubation time of gel technology
|
15 minutes
|
|
Principle of gel technology
|
Hemagglutination
|
|
Gel used in gel technology
|
dextran-acrylamide gel
|
|
Screening and panel cells are suspended in what solution
|
LISS
|
|
Gel technology applications
|
ABO forward and reverse, Rh typing, DAT, Antibody screening, Antibody identification, Compatibility testing
|
|
Measure of gel card
|
5x7 cm
|
|
No. of microtubes consisting the gel card
|
6
|
|
4+ gel reaction
|
Solid band of agglutinated red cells at the top of the gel column. Usually no red cells are visible in the bottom of the microtube.
|
|
3+ gel reaction
|
Predominant amount of agglutinated red cells at the top of the gel column with a few agglutinates staggered below the thicker band.
|
|
2+ gel reaction
|
Red cell agglutinates are dispersed throughout the gel column with few agglutinates at the bottom of the microtube.
|
|
1+ gel reaction
|
Red cell agglutinates predominantly observed in the lower half of the gel column with red cells also in the bottom
|
|
Mixed-field gel reaction
|
Layer of red cell agglutinates at the top of the gel column accompanied by a pellet of unagglutinated cells in the bottom of the microtube
|
|
Negative gel reaction
|
Red cells forming a well-delineated pellet in the bottom of the microtube. The gel above the red cell pellet is clear and free of agglutinates
|
|
Antibody class capable of causing agglutination of saline-suspended RBCs
|
IgM
|
|
|
Donor Screening
|
|
Patient’s history includes
|
age, sex, race, diagnosis, pregnancy, transfusion history, current medications, intravenous solutions
|
|
Reagent used in antibody identification
|
collection of 11-20 group O RBCs w/ various antigen expression
|
|
Destroys the pentameric structure of agglutinating IGM
|
sulfhydryl reagents
|
|
example of sulfhydryl reagents
|
2-mercaptoethanol
|
|
example of sulfhydryl reagents
|
dithiothreitol
|
|
process used to physically remove antibodies from sera
|
adsorption
|
|
process used to remove antibodies bound to RBCs
|
elution
|
|
harvested antibody-containing fluid
|
eluate
|
|
measurement of scrubbing
|
4 cm (2x2)
|
|
minimum time of scrubbing the site
|
30 seconds
|
|
For blood collection, most blood centers use an iodine compound such as ____ (1)
|
PVP iodine
|
|
For blood collection, most blood centers use an iodine compound such as ____ (2)
|
polymer iodine complex
|
|
Donors who are allergic or sensitive to iodine compounds may use
|
Chlorhexidine gluconate and isopropyl alcohol
|
|
apply tourniquet or blood pressure cuff about ____ to increase distention of the vein
|
40-60 mmHg
|
|
Is the gauge number of needle often used for bleeding/donation
|
16G
|
|
Ask the donor to open and close the hand every _______ during collection procedure
|
10-12 seconds
|
|
Mix blood and anticoagulant periodically every _____ during the procedure
|
45 seconds
|
|
The conversion factor ____ is used to convert grams to milliliters
|
1.06 g/mL
|
|
Volume of anticoagulant in blood bag
|
63 mL
|
|
If the volume collected is in the low volume range (300 to 404 mL in a 450-mL collection or 333 to 449 mL in a 500-mL collection), the unit must be labeled as a “low volume unit,” and ______ cannot be made from this unit as it would not contain adequate levels of coagulation factors.
|
FFP
|
|
Before the needle is removed from the donor’s arm, pilot tubes are filled. The pressure is reduced to __________
|
20 mmHg or less
|
|
Blood withdrawn over a 7-10 time period and mixed with anticoagulant
|
450 10% (405-495 mL)
|
|
Donations of whole blood where the bleed time exceeded ______ are not suitable for the production of plasma components, platelet products, and cryoprecipitate for direct clinical use
|
15 minutes
|
|
Blood collected must be processed for component preparation within __ of collection.
|
6-8 hours
|
|
Units in which platelets will be made must be maintained at room temperature _______ until the platelet concentrate has been prepared;
|
20-24C
|
|
Diversion of at least the first __ of blood into a special diversion pouch can capture skin debris and has been shown to reduce the proportion of platelet components containing viable bacteria.
|
10 mL (15-20 mL)
|
|
Governing body for blood bank inspection; inspects blood banks every year
|
FDA
|
|
Blood is regulated both as a ___ and as a ____
|
Drug
|
|
Blood is regulated both as a ___ and as a ____
|
Biologic
|
|
Common anticoagulant for apheresis
|
ACD
|
|
|
Types of Donation
|
|
Type of donation: genetically different individual of the same species
|
allogenic donation
|
|
In autologous donation, what are the minimum tests needed to perform?
|
ABO and Rh
|
What is required to be tested if collecting and transfusing facilities are the same?
|
viral markers and STS
|
|
In the case of autologous donation in which collecting and transfusing facilities are different, what unit should be tested?
|
first unit
|
|
In the case of autologous donation in which collecting and transfusing facilities are different, how frequent should the unit be tested?
|
every 30-day period
|
|
Autologous units color
|
Green
|
|
The idea of apheresis was developed by
|
Dr. Edwin J. Cohn
|
|
In apheresis, the donor or patient remains attached to the amount of time for a particular procedure can range from
|
45 to 120 minutes
|
|
First product to be collected by apheresis methods
|
Plasma
|
|
Greek word apheresis is derived from
|
aphairos
|
|
Type of donation: collected under the same requirements as those for allogeneic donors, except that the unit collected is directed toward a specific patient
|
Directed blood donation
|
|
Directed blood donation color
|
yellow, salmon
|
|
|
|
|
Qualifications in Allogenic Donation
|
|
General appearance
|
good health
|
|
General appearance
|
no intake of drugs
|
|
General appearance
|
no intake of alcohol
|
|
General appearance
|
no skin lesions
|
|
General requirement as per DOH
|
6-8 hrs uninterrupted sleep
|
|
General requirement as per DOH
|
no alcohol (24 hours)
|
|
General requirement as per DOH
|
no smoking (4 hours)
|
|
Age (AABB)
|
18-65
|
|
Age (DOH)
|
16-65
|
|
needed document of a 16-17 year old donor
|
parental consent
|
|
donor age that needs physician consent
|
>65
|
|
Regular donors may be accepted up to ___ yrs old (before ___ birthday) subject to evaluation by a medical officer
|
70; 71st
|
|
Weight in kg
|
50
|
|
Weight in pounds
|
110
|
|
Standards mandates a maximum of ___ of blood/kg of donor weight for whole blood collection, inclusive of pilot tubes for testing.
|
10.5 mL
|
|
Temperature in celcius
|
less than or equal to 37.5
|
|
Temperature in fahrenheit
|
less than or equal to 99.5
|
|
Pulse as per trans
|
50-100
|
|
Pulse as per DOH
|
60-100
|
|
Pulse of an athletic — not a cause for deferral
|
less than 50
|
|
Blood pressure systolic as per AABB
|
less than or equal to 180 mmHg
|
|
Blood pressure diastolic as per AABB
|
less than pr equal to 100 mmHg
|
|
Blood pressure systolic as per DOH
|
90-160 mmHg
|
|
Blood pressure diastolic as per DOH
|
60-100 mmHg
|
|
Hemoglobin as per AABB (Female)
|
greater than or equal to 12.5 g/dL
|
|
Hemoglobin as per AABB (Male)
|
greater than or equal to 13.0 g/dL
|
|
Range of Hemoglobin as per DOH (Female)
|
12.5-17.5 g/dL
|
|
Range of Hemoglobin as per DOH (Male)
|
13.5-18.5 g/dL
|
|
Hematocrit of women
|
38%
|
|
Hematocrit of men
|
39%
|
|
CuSO4 specific gravity should be
|
1.053
|
|
Volume of the container to be used in CuSO4 method
|
30 mL
|
|
Distance between drop of blood and solution should be
|
1 cm
|
|
Acceptable drop of blood will sink in solution within ______ if Hb concentration is greater than or equal to 12.5 mg/dL
|
15 seconds
|
|
|
General Requirements for Autologous Donation
|
|
Age
|
None
|
|
Weight
|
None
|
|
Hemoglobin
|
greater than or equal to 11 g/dL
|
|
Hematocrit
|
greater than or equal to 33%
|
|
Frequency
|
not more than 3 days
|
|
Methods for Obtaining Autologous Blood
|
|
Occurs during the 5 to 6 weeks immediately preceding a scheduled, elective surgical procedure unless the red blood cells and plasma are scheduled to be frozen.
|
Postoperative Collection
|
|
The last blood collection should occur no later than __________ before the scheduled surgery to allow for volume replacement.
|
3 days
|
|
Results in the collection of whole blood with the concurrent infusion of crystalloid or colloid solutions, thus maintaining a normal blood volume but decreasing the patient’s hematocrit
|
Acute normovolemic hemodilution
|
|
Ratio of replacement for crystalloids
|
3:1
|
|
Ratio of replacement for colloids
|
1:1
|
|
Involves collecting shed blood from the surgical site; processing the blood through an instrument that washes it with saline to remove tissue debris, free hemoglobin, and plasma that may contain activated coagulation factors; concentrating the residual red cells (to a hematocrit of 50% to 60%); and then reinfusing those cells immediately.
|
Intraoperative collection
|
|
In the 3rd method of obtaining autologous blood, how much is the hematocrit of the residual red cells concentrated into before reinfusing the cells?
|
50-60%
|
|
a drainage tube is placed in the surgical site and postoperative bleeding is salvaged, cleaned and reinfused
|
Postoperative blood salvage
|
|
Donor Deferral
|
|
Prospective donor is unable to donate blood for a limited period of time.
|
Temporary
|
|
Prospective donor is unable to donate blood for someone else for an unspecified period of time due to current regulatory requirements.
|
Indefinite
|
|
Prospective donor will never be eligible to donate blood for someone else.
|
Permanent
|
|
This donor would not be able to donate blood until the current requirement changes.
|
Indefinite
|
|
Identify: Permanent/Indefinite (PI), 1 year (1Y), 1 month (1M)
|
|
Chronic cardiopulmonary disease
|
PI
|
|
Tattoo
|
1Y
|
|
Received clotting factors
|
1M
|
|
After Hepa B immunoglobulin administration
|
1Y
|
|
Chicken pox vaccination
|
1M
|
|
Positive for HTLV
|
PI
|
|
Finasteride (Proscar)
|
1M
|
|
Rape victim
|
1Y
|
|
Leukemia, lymphoma, or myeloproliferative disorder
|
PI
|
|
Recipient of human pituitary—derived growth hormone
|
PI
|
|
Received transfusion of blood components, or other human tissues (organ, bone, marrow, or skin graft)
|
1Y
|
|
Positive for AIDS
|
P1
|
|
Recipient of bovine insulin
|
PI
|
|
Experimental medication or unlicensed (experimental) vaccine
|
1Y
|
|
German measles (rubella) vaccination
|
1M
|
|
Needle stick injury
|
1Y
|
|
Renal disease (chronic)
|
PI
|
|
IV drug user
|
PI
|
|
Sexual contact with prostitute, person with AIDS/hepatitis, or hemophiliac, or IV drug user
|
1Y
|
|
Recipient of cornea and dura mater (trans)
|
PI
|
|
Recipient of cornea and dura mater (DOH)
|
1Y
|
|
Positive for HBsAg
|
PI
|
|
Major operation including dental surgery
|
1Y
|
|
Female who had sexual contact with a man who ever had sex with another man
|
1Y
|
|
History of babesiosis
|
PI
|
|
Syphilis or gonorrhea
|
1Y
|
|
History of Chagas disease
|
PI
|
|
Etretinate (Tegison’ treatment for psoriasis
|
PI
|
|
Healthcare worker exposed to blood or body fluids
|
1Y
|
|
Ear or body piercing
|
1Y
|
|
Malignant solid tumors
|
PI
|
|
Liver disease (chronic)
|
PI
|
|
Have been in prison, detention or lockup >72 hours
|
1Y
|
|
Isotretinoin (Accutane) for acne
|
1M
|
|
Rabies vaccination
|
PI
|
|
Hemophiliacs
|
PI
|
|
Tegison
|
PI
|
|
|
Other deferrals
|
|
Childbirth (AABB)
|
6 weeks after
|
|
Childbirth (WHO)
|
9 months after until 3 months after weaning
|
|
Childbirth (DOH)
|
1 year or 3 months after weaning
|
|
Is abortion in 1st trimester or 2nd trimester a cause for deferral?
|
No
|
|
Transfusion during pregnancy
|
1 year
|
|
MMR combined (DOH)
|
8 weeks
|
|
MMR combined (book)
|
4 weeks
|
|
2 weeks referral due to vaccination
|
Typhoid
|
|
2 weeks referral due to vaccination
|
Oral polio
|
|
2 weeks referral due to vaccination
|
Measles
|
|
2 weeks referral due to vaccination
|
Mumps
|
|
2 weeks referral due to vaccination
|
Yellow fever
|
|
Proscar
|
1 month
|
|
Soriatane
|
3 years
|
|
Accutane
|
1 month
|
|
Propecia
|
1 month
|
|
Avodart
|
6 months
|
|
Plavix
|
14 days
|
|
Feldene
|
2 days
|
|
Effient
|
3 days
|
|
Brilinta
|
7 days
|
|
Ticlid
|
14 days
|
|
Zontivity
|
1 month
|
|
Aspirin (Book)
|
2 days
|
|
Aspirin (DOH)
|
3 days
|
|
Piroxicam (Book)
|
2 days
|
|
Piroxicam (DOH)
|
3 days
|
|
HIV Prevention
|
3 months
|
|
PrEP or PEP
|
3 months
|
|
Malaria Deferral: Travelers to endemic areas (AABB)
|
1 year
|
|
Malaria Deferral: Immigrants, refuges, citizens who resided on endemic areas, and diagnosed/infected with malaria (AABB)
|
3 years
|
|
Malaria Deferral: Malaria Infection (DOH)
|
3 years after treatment, if asymptomatic
|
|
Malaria Deferral: Travel to area endemic for malaria with or without prophylaxis (stay for < 6 months)
|
6 months
|
|
Malaria Deferral: Former resident of malaria endemic area, or stayed in malaria endemic area for 6 months or more
|
1 year
|
|
Whole Blood Donation (AABB)
|
2 months
|
|
Whole Blood Donation (DOH)
|
3 months
|
|
Toxoid/killed/synthetic vaccines
|
None
|
|