I would have put it on there. It's a great educational opportunity. If they had a good English teacher (and paid attention), they would have known it. Also, if they do a quick search, they would be immediately proven to be incorrect.
And you could always reply, "Prithee, I am loath to argue with thine unfilléd pate."
I was kind of surprised to see 'methinks' on here; that one seems to me to be a lot more current than the other examples. I've personally used it a handful of times, and I don't consider myself too ancient.
That's a different "ye". This "ye" is an actual "ye". I can see no reason why anyone would ever mix up "ye" and "ye", when ye olde "ye" is only ever used in an entirely different context from "ye", ya see?
I can't speak to the rest of your comment, but y'all functions as a "plural you" for myself and many others in the USA, especially the south. There are also several other terms that serve the purpose in common use.
'Simplification' happens in all languages, whether by analogy or disuse or otherwise, and it's not 'stupidification'. Indeed you could argue it's MORE stupid to have so many redundant or obscure forms in the system. How are you classing a 'normal' or 'intelligent' language? Do languages without detailed tense, mood and aspect systems in the verb conjugation, like Chinese, count as 'stupid'? Anyway English more than makes up for 'simplification' elsewhere.
'Whence' is still used properly by people who have studied English. The incorrect form 'from whence' is used by people who haven't but still want to sound educated.
Aye is common modern language in Scotland, but it's also an archaic term that's used in English Parliament. Maybe clear up any confusion by changing the example to 354 ___ to the right
And you could always reply, "Prithee, I am loath to argue with thine unfilléd pate."
I also just realized that was in iambic hexameter. I've been reading too much Shakespeare.
And had pronoun specific conjugation? :O
Why did the language stupidify (simplify) itself?
Thanks