Despite these invasions, eighty percent of the DNA of most Britons has been passed down from the few thousand hunter gatherers who lived in the region several thousand years ago.
Does that mean the 80% of the 0.01 percent, not all humans have in common? Would be shocked, if Britons actually where farther distinct from us than most monkies.
no that's not how it works. If I got 100% of my DNA from my mom and dad, that doesn't mean that my mom and dad are a different species from other humans.
I'm a bit confused by your answer. If your mother and father are human beings, they share 99.5% of their DNA with every other human being, as do you. If this is not the case, if you only share 80% of you DNA with humans, you are probably not a Homo Sapiens.
As I assume, that Brits are Humans, they share 99.5% of their DNA with me, a Non-Brit Homo Sapiens.
That very small amount (.1-.5% genetic difference between individuals) still means several million genetic differences; as such it is certainly very reasonable to compare how many of those millions of differences are shared between various individuals or groups, even if the overall genomes are largely the same
Some basics: DNA forms a readable code made up from repeating chemical units, like letters in the alphabet. Your complete DNA code is called your genome and contains 3000 million ‘letters’, which contain the instructions that the cells in your body ‘read’ to make you the way you are.
The genes are the recipes in the recipe book. It is a small part of the code that contain a set of instructions that usually make one particular protein. We have 20,000 genes, but this only comprises 2% of our genome (total DNA).
Studies comparing animal and plant DNA to our own are done by comparing the DNA base pairs in genes that humans and chimps share. So in the genes that chimps and humans have in common are approximately 98%. But that is misleading because it omits a large sources of variation (like duplications and deletions) and doesn’t look at ‘non coding DNA’ - which does influence the way our genes are expressed (so is important in explaining our differences
Human beings are basically identical if you use the metrics used with comparing to other species. So the genomic studies in humans look at minuscule detail compared to this, including things like SNPs - which are non coding markers used in things like 23 and me tests
All humans are ultimately related but we are all unique, with mixing and “de novo” alterations having at every generation. When the founding population is small, this happens a bit faster because the gene pool is smaller and the gene frequencies are different. This is called the founder effect https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=IRTn0iNkAHI
If you want to know where the greatest diversity of humans is - it’s Africa, because its where we came from. There is more genetic and phenotypical differences within Africa than there is in the entire rest of the world put together.
QRU I think that the 80% number came from 80% of their DNA is shared with this one subset of other humans in the past, the 'few thousand hunter-gatherers'. I may be misinterpreting this though
PO - my understanding is that you can't really put a number on how many genes there are in an organism's DNA code - a gene is just a contiguous section of DNA which, as a unit, has an affect on the development of the "host" organism. It doesn't have a set length - a gene could be 5 letters (nucleotide pairs?) long, or it could be 50,000 long, and sections of DNA can be part of more than one gene (i.e. genes can overlap, effectively sharing sections of a chromosome) so it's really impossible in practical terms to quantify how many genes an organism has.
I think sometimes even non-contiguous sections of chromosomes combine forces to create a single protein to affect embryonic development, but I'm not entirely sure - thinking about it I can't see how separate sections of DNA would be able to work together to consistently create specific proteins.
You may well be able to tell me that I'm wrong about all of the above though...
Yes, genes work together, and the "code" is gibberish on itself, but that does not mean that it is indivisible.
This is like saying that the number of lines/blocks of code cannot be determined as the lines are part of a bigger code.
There are numerous genes identified which have even been transferred between species (there are light-emitting plants based on i think firefly genes). Some "simpler" genes have been identified, where the function is clear and isolated and where changes in code ("alleles") have a "clear" effect on those persons (e.g. missing enzymes, warrior gene, ...)
The main issue is the sheer amount of code, which is in fact very tolerant for "typo's". This makes it very hard to understand exactly what each and every part means (like we know it is code but we cannot read it yet). It does not mean there is no distinct division. There things like stop codons the mark the end of a certain protein strand.
I think that what I was getting at was that "gene" in a physical sense has a somewhat vague definition in that it is really just a term for any section of genetic code which is being focused on for the current discussion - a gene doesn't have set parameters in the same was as, for example, a byte does in binary code.
And (I think) genes can overlap, combine, etc. So a "gene" might itself be a subsection of another, larger gene (and may have a completely unrelated function to that larger gene), or it might work in conjuction with a physically separate section of genetic code to act as a non-contiguous gene.
But yeah, we can identify sections of the genetic code which function to produce specific proteins so I guess they are quantifiable.
And again, this is just my understanding which is very limited - if you know about this stuff then I'm sure you're right. And yes, it is very interesting stuff
We are all related to everyone else and descended from a relatively small number of individuals. Family trees fold into each other over generations. If you imagine a traditional family tree of emperor Charlemagne to now (742 generations onwards) - with each one person descended from 2 unrelated people - you would have 137438953472 individuals on it (more people than have been alive over the course of human history in total). So that can’t be right.
So If you look at the population 1000 years ago in Europe, 80% of that population is related to *everyone* today in Europe. The other 20% died out. That’s what “I’m descended from an ancient king’ is so damn meaningless. If you are, then we literally all are.
From Adam Rutherford’s book, the story of everyone who has ever lived
I've never heard of Adam Rutherford, but it helped me to remember the book Sarum, by Edward Rutherfurd, a historical novel spanning 10,000 years of English history.
No, 1688. The Glorious Revolution, actually a hostile takeover even if it was at the request of Middle Management.
I suppose there was the distinction that unlike the other five, there wasn't a huge amount of Dutch settlement in the country (although there was a little bit).
Should accept Anglo Saxons. Agree re William of Orange - but what about Henry IV, Edward IV, and Henry VII as well? All successful invasions mounted from outside England.
Dammit, my history degree on Anglo-Saxon History was completely wrong then. I'll have to write to my old university (plus every other university that covers the subject) then and tell them that GingeAlex says that Anglo-Saxon is wrong and that everything written on the subject over the last few centuries is now wrong.
Exactly. Angles, Saxons, Jutes, Frisians, yet fitheach here brasses it out and elaborately accuses everyone ELSE. The Angles gave their name to England, not vice versa.
Jute AKA Legolanders who dotted the English countryside with sharp, small plastic bricks to temporarily immobilize and intensely anger the native populations. It would have been more successful too had the cost of these devilish landmines not been so shockingly expensive and their illustrated instructions somewhat unclear.
Not if you're Welsh. We refer to it as the arrival of the barbarians. We've civilised them a little over the last thousand years or so but there's still work to be done.
The Normans entered vassalage to the king of France at the Treaty of Saint-Clair-sur-Epte in 911. They settled in Normandy and assimilated into the local population.
By the time William, duke of Normandy, crossed the Channel 150 years later, he and his army were French and considered themselves to be so. Born in France, raised in France, speaking French and carrying French culture. In fact, it would take another 350 years before a king was crowned in England that would speak English (Henry IV in 1399).
Norman is a euphemism used by the English in order to avoid accepting the inescapable truth that their land was conquered by a Frenchmen 1000 years ago. Denial is a powerful thing.
But the question doesn't say what country successfully invaded and settled Great Britain, does it? It says what groups of people. In 1066, a group of Frenchmen successfully invaded and settled Great Britain.........
Strikes me that saying the Normans were French is a bit like saying the Welsh are English - in fact it's even less true.
It helps to remember that, around this time, France was a relatively tiny country covering not much more than the modern Île-de-France (hence the name). They were vastly influential for their size, of course, but their vassals the Normans were simply Normans, they weren't French. A vassal state, after all, by definition is not part of the state it is vassal to.
JonOfKent you're seriously arguing that the kingdom of France didn't exist, or at least didn't have the frontiers you'll find in ANY encyclopedia or ANY history book. It's incredible how absurd people become just to deny the fact that the normans were french.
You're talking about the royal domain, because indeed the king of France in the middle ages never totally controlled his kingdom: he controlled the royal domain, and had powerful vassals controlling the rest of the kingdom. Some of those vassals were politically near independant at some point in history (like the Normans). Yet, being politically divided doesn't mean the kingdom didn't exist, don't be stupid.
Regarding 1066, just look at William's ancestry, the entire tree. Most original Norse settlers assimilated and mixed with the native population in Normandy from the start (that native population was always the majority), so by the time William invaded England, most Normans had an overwhelming French ancestry.
In 1066, France was not a tiny country centred around Ile-de-France. By the time Hugh Capet was crowned in 987, France was already a massive state ranging from the Pyrenees out to Flanders. Yes there were regional differences within the kingdom. But saying Normans in 1066 weren't French is more like saying that Texans aren't Americans, Bavarians aren't Germans and Quebecers aren't Canadians. They are (although some wish they weren't).
Normans were actually quite fascinating. They kept raiding France as vikings, then the French king gave them some land, hoping they would chill down a bit. Soon after the vikings suddenly assimilated and became these fancy-pants French-speaking Normans.
They might have adopted the French language and religion but they were still among the fiercest warriors on the planet. England wasn't the only place they conquered. They also conquered Malta, parts of Italy, parts of Northern Africa, and attacked the Byzantine Empire. True assimilation would take hundreds of years.
That is simply not true. The Norman assimilation was quite fast. By the end of the reign of Richard I of Normandy in 996 (aka Richard the Fearless / Richard sans Peur), all descendants of Vikings became, according to Cambridge Medieval History (Volume 5, Chapter XV), 'not only Christians but in all essentials Frenchmen.' ....
The vikings in Normandy always remained a minority, most people in Normandy remained descendants of natives French. William the conquerors himself, had 90% of his ancestry from France.
Those are easily verifiable informations. They didn't just change culturally, they changed in every single way, including blood. So you can't consider the Normans as vikings at any point in history.
It's debated to what extent 'Celtic' refers more to a people or a culture... While some call it an invasion, there are other suggestions that it was a migration, and yet other suggestions that there was little actual movement of people involved and the culture was simply brought to Britain through trade routes. Though I don't know how reliable the theories are. Anyway there were people in western Europe before the Celts, like the Etruscans and the Basques, and Britain was no exception, although it hadn't been continuously settled for quite as long due to the Ice Ages.
Call it a "glorious revolution" all you want, but the fact of the matter is that the Dutch invaded England with the help of an army and sympathizers in Parliament.
I think the Germanic tribes should be broken down into Angles, Saxons and Jutes. They're all fairly well-known (e.g. Anglo-Saxon) enough for a quiz like this. I actually tried Anglos, Saxons and Jutes before trying Germanics.
It's been said before, the Dutch invasion of 1667(might be considered a raid and not an invasion) and the "Glorious Revolution" which is just an invasion could be on the list. Also the capture of the Channel Islands by the Germans in WW2 could be considered.
http://news.nationalgeographic.com/news/2005/07/0719_050719_britishgene.html
http://www.nature.com/nature/journal/v437/n7055/full/nature04072.html
As I assume, that Brits are Humans, they share 99.5% of their DNA with me, a Non-Brit Homo Sapiens.
Jack: Humans share ~96% of their DNA with chimps and ~93% with monkeys.
The genes are the recipes in the recipe book. It is a small part of the code that contain a set of instructions that usually make one particular protein. We have 20,000 genes, but this only comprises 2% of our genome (total DNA).
Studies comparing animal and plant DNA to our own are done by comparing the DNA base pairs in genes that humans and chimps share. So in the genes that chimps and humans have in common are approximately 98%. But that is misleading because it omits a large sources of variation (like duplications and deletions) and doesn’t look at ‘non coding DNA’ - which does influence the way our genes are expressed (so is important in explaining our differences
Human beings are basically identical if you use the metrics used with comparing to other species. So the genomic studies in humans look at minuscule detail compared to this, including things like SNPs - which are non coding markers used in things like 23 and me tests
All humans are ultimately related but we are all unique, with mixing and “de novo” alterations having at every generation. When the founding population is small, this happens a bit faster because the gene pool is smaller and the gene frequencies are different. This is called the founder effect https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=IRTn0iNkAHI
If you want to know where the greatest diversity of humans is - it’s Africa, because its where we came from. There is more genetic and phenotypical differences within Africa than there is in the entire rest of the world put together.
I think sometimes even non-contiguous sections of chromosomes combine forces to create a single protein to affect embryonic development, but I'm not entirely sure - thinking about it I can't see how separate sections of DNA would be able to work together to consistently create specific proteins.
You may well be able to tell me that I'm wrong about all of the above though...
Yes, genes work together, and the "code" is gibberish on itself, but that does not mean that it is indivisible.
This is like saying that the number of lines/blocks of code cannot be determined as the lines are part of a bigger code.
There are numerous genes identified which have even been transferred between species (there are light-emitting plants based on i think firefly genes). Some "simpler" genes have been identified, where the function is clear and isolated and where changes in code ("alleles") have a "clear" effect on those persons (e.g. missing enzymes, warrior gene, ...)
The main issue is the sheer amount of code, which is in fact very tolerant for "typo's". This makes it very hard to understand exactly what each and every part means (like we know it is code but we cannot read it yet). It does not mean there is no distinct division. There things like stop codons the mark the end of a certain protein strand.
interesting stuf
And (I think) genes can overlap, combine, etc. So a "gene" might itself be a subsection of another, larger gene (and may have a completely unrelated function to that larger gene), or it might work in conjuction with a physically separate section of genetic code to act as a non-contiguous gene.
But yeah, we can identify sections of the genetic code which function to produce specific proteins so I guess they are quantifiable.
And again, this is just my understanding which is very limited - if you know about this stuff then I'm sure you're right. And yes, it is very interesting stuff
So If you look at the population 1000 years ago in Europe, 80% of that population is related to *everyone* today in Europe. The other 20% died out. That’s what “I’m descended from an ancient king’ is so damn meaningless. If you are, then we literally all are.
From Adam Rutherford’s book, the story of everyone who has ever lived
The favourite simple message about human population genetics is that “humans have always been horny and mobile”
I suppose there was the distinction that unlike the other five, there wasn't a huge amount of Dutch settlement in the country (although there was a little bit).
The Normans entered vassalage to the king of France at the Treaty of Saint-Clair-sur-Epte in 911. They settled in Normandy and assimilated into the local population.
By the time William, duke of Normandy, crossed the Channel 150 years later, he and his army were French and considered themselves to be so. Born in France, raised in France, speaking French and carrying French culture. In fact, it would take another 350 years before a king was crowned in England that would speak English (Henry IV in 1399).
Norman is a euphemism used by the English in order to avoid accepting the inescapable truth that their land was conquered by a Frenchmen 1000 years ago. Denial is a powerful thing.
It helps to remember that, around this time, France was a relatively tiny country covering not much more than the modern Île-de-France (hence the name). They were vastly influential for their size, of course, but their vassals the Normans were simply Normans, they weren't French. A vassal state, after all, by definition is not part of the state it is vassal to.
You're talking about the royal domain, because indeed the king of France in the middle ages never totally controlled his kingdom: he controlled the royal domain, and had powerful vassals controlling the rest of the kingdom. Some of those vassals were politically near independant at some point in history (like the Normans). Yet, being politically divided doesn't mean the kingdom didn't exist, don't be stupid.
Regarding 1066, just look at William's ancestry, the entire tree. Most original Norse settlers assimilated and mixed with the native population in Normandy from the start (that native population was always the majority), so by the time William invaded England, most Normans had an overwhelming French ancestry.
Those are easily verifiable informations. They didn't just change culturally, they changed in every single way, including blood. So you can't consider the Normans as vikings at any point in history.
Is there any reason it hasn't been included in this quiz?