Vasco da Gama and Charles de Gaulle seem wrong in this quiz. The "van/von/de/da" etc preceding the surname is not used as a basis of alphabetisation. Think "Catherine of Aragorn". Would you put that in a quiz with answers starting with "O" ?
It's an important part of the surname, though. His ancestors were not Gama. They were from Gama. Similarly, you would not file Osama bin Laden under "b". His surname is not Laden. ibn in Arabic means "son of," similar to "Mc/Mic/Mac" in some languages. You wouldn't file Norm MacDonald under "D." His name is not Donald. Or what about the surname Deville.. derived from the French "de Val" or "of the valley." But that doesn't change the fact that the surname is Deville. Not Ville.
Thanks. It's one of those things that either way I do it people will complain. The only way to make everyone happy would be to leave those people off the list entirely. And that would make me sad...
Well, Catherine of Aragon comes from Aragon. Charles de Gaulle definitely doesn't come from Gaulle (as Gaulle doesn't even exist). In fact, "de Gaulle" comes from dutch and means "the wall".
Here in France, we always refer to him as "de Gaulle" (and not only "Gaulle", that would be grammatically incorrect) and I'm pretty sure he appears in the "D" pages of our dictionaries.
PS : He comes from Gaule though ;)
PPS: I like to answer to comments that are 7 years old haha
A lot of people say the Dark Ages weren't actually dark. But in my opinion they are very wrong. (Warning, long read). Western civilization had a major collapse after the fall of the Roman Empire.
Europe was a clumsy mess for 5 centuries with far, far less recorded history, near no advancements and enormous societal regression. Pretty dark times.
Yeah, it's bizarre that people want to litigate this. Western Europe declined spectacularly for several hundred years. Really, read the article I linked in the comment above.
It's very complicated and I do think that there was NOT a true "fall" of the Roman Empire. But yes, there was a drop in civilization at that time, especially in England. By the way, the idea of "Dark Ages" is very British. We don't even say that in French.
Many thanks to the Quizmaster for posting the link. I already saw it the last time I took the quiz and I found it very interesting. I definitely learned a lot from it and it's always a pleasure to stumble upon so much knowledge almost unexpectadly.
"Western European Dark Ages" is a decent descriptor from like 400-800 solely for everything West of Italy and Germany. But even in Greece, literally definitionally the cradle of the West, tons of records and literature and progress occured because the Eastern Roman Empire was chugging right along.
Of course this is also ignoring that Western Europe is less than ten percent of the world. China actually did have a bad period in the 300s to 400s but rebounded quicker than Western Europe and the Tang Dynasty right after that is considered a cultural high point. India had tons of development, and both regions were far richer and more left more records of this period. Also the mid dark ages were the Golden Age of the Mayans.
While its true that the Eastern Roman Empire continued chugging, it had its own collapse following the volcanic winter of 536, the Plague of Justinian, the loss of Egypt to the Persians, and finally the loss of almost everything else to the Arabs.
By the early 700s AD, the Byzantine Empire controlled little beyond Constantinople itself – whose population had shrunk by perhaps 90% since the days of Justinian.
That the Byzantine Empire survived at all, and even staged a modest comeback, is truly remarkable. But it was a far cry from the glories of classical antiquity.
As to India, China, the Arab World, or the Mayans, that's completely irrelevant.
The Dark Ages are defined as a European Dark Ages. The clue clearly states this and no where does it imply that other parts of the world were affected.
Really, people need to Read This. It's so good. Here's an excerpt:
I wonder if these people interrupt anyone who talks about the Warring States period with “actually, there were only warring states in China. Many other areas during this period had no warring states at all! Guess you fell victim to the Myth Of The Warring States Period.”
What about the Bronze Age? There wasn’t any bronze in Australia. The Hellenistic period? Huge swathes of the Earth’s land area remained un-Hellenized. The Time of Troubles? Actually, outside of Russia there were no more troubles than usual. The Era of Good Feelings? Maybe there were a bunch of bad feelings not in the US.
‘Da Vinci’ is no surname—it simply refers to Leonardo’s birthplace (Vinci) in Tuscany. Leonardo had no surname, and no-one in his time would ever have referred to him by ‘da Vinci’. (This distinguished him from e.g. Michelangelo, who did have a surname, i.e. Buonarroti.) Calling Leonardo ‘da Vinci’ simply shows the ignorance of people like Dan Brown. He can only be an answer under the letter L, if a quiz strives for accuracy.
This is a niche comment that probably nobody will understand, but after spending some time on a certain video platform hated by a world leader the first question made me laugh so hard I lost a good minute on the clock.
I think Leonardo da Vinci belongs in an 'L'-quiz, as he is usually referred to as 'Leonardo'.
Here in France, we always refer to him as "de Gaulle" (and not only "Gaulle", that would be grammatically incorrect) and I'm pretty sure he appears in the "D" pages of our dictionaries.
PS : He comes from Gaule though ;)
PPS: I like to answer to comments that are 7 years old haha
That's Descartes before de horse.
Apparently Stone Age is verboten now too. The Flintstones, Rubbles and Slates filed a class action suit.
Of course this is also ignoring that Western Europe is less than ten percent of the world. China actually did have a bad period in the 300s to 400s but rebounded quicker than Western Europe and the Tang Dynasty right after that is considered a cultural high point. India had tons of development, and both regions were far richer and more left more records of this period. Also the mid dark ages were the Golden Age of the Mayans.
By the early 700s AD, the Byzantine Empire controlled little beyond Constantinople itself – whose population had shrunk by perhaps 90% since the days of Justinian.
That the Byzantine Empire survived at all, and even staged a modest comeback, is truly remarkable. But it was a far cry from the glories of classical antiquity.
The Dark Ages are defined as a European Dark Ages. The clue clearly states this and no where does it imply that other parts of the world were affected.
Really, people need to Read This. It's so good. Here's an excerpt:
I wonder if these people interrupt anyone who talks about the Warring States period with “actually, there were only warring states in China. Many other areas during this period had no warring states at all! Guess you fell victim to the Myth Of The Warring States Period.”
What about the Bronze Age? There wasn’t any bronze in Australia. The Hellenistic period? Huge swathes of the Earth’s land area remained un-Hellenized. The Time of Troubles? Actually, outside of Russia there were no more troubles than usual. The Era of Good Feelings? Maybe there were a bunch of bad feelings not in the US.
I also think it should be spelled Da Vinky