You will be shown 10 random numbers between 1 and 100 without knowing what's next. Your task is to put them in order! But beware, if a number cannot be placed, the quiz ends...
I don't think they actually believe that. The claim is just phrased that way so that people who don't know the historical facts (and most of them obviously don't) find it easy to believe.
I think vitriden is probably correct. If there's any other factor it might be that Waterloo and his disastrous campaign in Russia are more famous than any of his many victories.
I didn't bite on the Napoleon question, but there were definitely others (the Chinese emperors & concubines, farmers in the Middle Ages) where I ignored common sense because I thought the question was trying to trick me. In any event, I always understood the "French cowards" thing to regard France's performance in 20th-century wars. I think everyone acknowledges that Napoleon was a great military leader. Americans make fun of the French a lot, but our history books usually place a lot of importance on France's critical role in helping us win the Revolutionary War.
Most of the trues were answered correctly at a higher rate than were the falses. Without running numbers, it looks statistically significant to me. Change the questions to "Napoleon won..." and more people probably get it right.
Waterloo being Napoleon's most famous is by no means just British propaganda. It is likely the most famous in France as well, and was certainly a cornerstone event in the decades following it, if mention in art and literature is anything to go by.
the idea of french being cowards and being constantly defeated is more a russian/american/german concept than british.
Generally speaking the british generally though quite highly of the french during the early modern and modern periods either as a powerful but respectable enemy or as a major ally.
As for why waterloo is more remembered than any of Napoleons other battles when most other generals are remembered for thier greatest victories.
One: many great generals are often remembered by thier biggest defeats, Romel and elAlamaine, Cornwallis and Yorktown, Xerxes and Darius and Marathon and Salamis, Leonidus and Themopoli, Richard I and the 3rd crusade.
Two most of the Napoleonic wars tend not to be taught at schools only the pivotal battles of trafalga and waterloo get any real focus which is farly common with History general knowledge, think of how many battles you would have studied for the hundred years war, usually just crecy and agincourt, mayby the siege of orleans
This one was so counter-intuitive that I didn't assume one would make it up. Figured that maybe Napoleon had lost many unimportant battles and made that up by winning Austerlitz etc.
Interesting article but it fails to address the potential consequences of certain battles. For instance, if Nelson (granted he's an Admiral not a General, but the point remains valid), had lost at Trafalgar, Napoleon would probably have continued with his plan to expand his empire, probably into Belgium next and maybe even into Britain itself.
The fact that Nelson achieved victory with fewer ships than the enemy meant that the British Navy retained naval supremacy throughout the 18th century and everything else, good and bad, which followed.
If Wellington had lost at Waterloo, Napoleon would certainly have marched in Belgium, so no more waffles and we would have a differently named waterproof boot.
So really, it's the magnitude and consequence of the loss that retains the greatest after-image. That and history being written by the victors.
Speaking of a very "English" way of recording History... calling Waterloo an "English" victory is a bit funny.
Napoleon and Wellington were pretty evenly matched, at about 70 000 men each - but Napoleon had more artillery by far. The decisive turning point of the battle was the early arrival of the Prussian army under Blücher, which turned the tide with its 50 000 men and 126 cannons. Right off the bat, if anything, it sounds more like an Anglo-Prussian victory. But then you have to take into account that basically all of Europe was allied against Naopleon! In fact, Wellington's forces were only about a third British (25 000 Brits, 17 000 Dutch soldiers, the rest mainly coming from various German states such as Hanover, Brunswick...).
Sounds more like a collective win to me!
What I'm saying is: be very careful with History when written by the British, especially when it's about the French!
I think it's because that was a leading question. If it was just worded as "Napoleon lost more battles than he won" less people would be inclined to believe it.
I agree. I hesitated. I don't think it has anything to do with anyone's opinion about Napoleon. There's a trivia question meta skill of thinking to yourself "Why is this a trivia question?" and it's one of the guessing skills you get when you try to answer trivia questions.
For example, think of all those questions about European cities being at the same latitude of (surprising) American cities. The interesting fact is how far north those cities are, so asking a question where the answer is "Yes, just as you'd expect, warm Rome is further south than cold Minneapolis" is just not an interesting trivia question. Surprising someone with a counterintuitive answer is the point of questions like that.
So it's a clever question, because it runs counter to this meta-gaming of wondering why you're asking if one of the greatest generals in history lost more battles--because it's an interesting fact if true, and a boring fact if untrue.
Well as an American I don't know much about the Napoleon Wars, but given that he lost those wars, it seems reasonable to me that he also would have lost more battles than won
He won the first like 5 of them before he lost one... And most of the battles he lost were more significant than the battles he won, as losing many troops when you have half of Europe against you is not going to go well.
I presumed you were looking for false for the first one, but it is rather subjective. And somewhat based on intelligence. It is like asking if French people will understand Italian, some will do better than others. Some will not even recognize a word when only one letter is changed, others can look through things and see the root of the word even if it is changed a lot. Comprehension has as much to do with the reader as it does with the subject matter.
Old English is a lot more different from modern English than Middle English is, but not incomprehensible imo. English is not even my language but I can decypher most of old texts (or at least after I have seen it written phonetically). I have an interest for it though, that helps. I love seeing the connection of words through different languages and see each word as a puzzle
Especially when the question is phrased "more or less". Personally I would be tempted to say yes. Now if it was phrased "perfectly completely easily"
This is a line of king Ælfred's version of Boethius "consoliatione philosophiae". I came across it while roaming around just now, falling deeper and deeper into the subject as one does (for some it is catvideo's though..) I found it rather fitting ;).
It means loosely translated; "You understand well enough what I am saying to you".
More literal "You well enough understand what I speak to you"
And verbatim " You enough well understand what I you to speak"
There's a difference between understanding the spoken language versus the written language. If the average modern English speaker saw the example sentence you posted, they would probably guess that that word in the middle is "understand," and then be clueless about the rest. If they heard it spoken aloud, maybe there's a chance they could make something of it.
Given that Old English has zero native speakers, people are probably going to be encountering it written down.
Also, based on your knowledge of (even the existence of) King Ælfred's version of Boethius' "consoliatione philosophiae", I'm going to go out on a limb and guess that you are not a typical modern English speaker ;)
Even though most cannot understand it, there are some who can which automatically makes this question invalid as a true/false question. It would have to be worded differently to account for the fact that there are some who do understand old english.
I don't understand why people are arguing this. Old English is a different language altogether from modern English. I, as a native English speaker with little-to-no knowledge of other Germanic languages, would likely have an easier time understanding Frisian or Norwegian than I would Old English.
I agree with QM and Fox above. If you haven't studied languages you will have no interest in it and will not understand the changes in the language. The fact that Sifhraven's first language is Dutch might give him a slight advantage too :)
I cannot agree more with this comment. I don't think the way this question is asked make it eligible for a true/false quiz, it is too subjective. It should be removed imo. For the rest. great job as usual Quizmaster
What if I changed "Old English" to "French". Would you disagree then? Language is subjective. I listened to several videos of people reading Old English. I couldn't understand them at all. It's a fact that the language has changed so much that it sounds completely different.
Heck, even Shakespeare isn't all that well understood tho most people get the gist. So many words are no longer in common use or their meanings have changed enough to make some lines completely misunderstood. Classic example: Wherefore art thou Romeo? He's standing right below her, just a couple meters away! They hear "wherefore" and understand it as "where" which obviously doesn't make sense - He's standing right below her, just a couple meters away!
QM, could the question be altered slightly to elaborate as to what time period you mean by “Old English”? The phrase “Middle English” is a new one to me. Foolishly I took ‘Old English’ to be kind of stuff around 300-400 years ago. Clearly I was well out.
I appreciate the distinctions may be well known to linguists or those who study the changing nature of languages, but to pleb like me .........
Old English generally refers to the English spoken prior to the Norman conquest. It is very different than Shakespeare (Early Modern English) or Chaucer (Middle English). It sounds like a totally foreign language to modern ears.
I thought the answer was "True" because I understood most of Canterbury Tales...but it turns out that's Middle English. I understand the objection to the subjectivity of "more or less," but I just listened to some Old English, and it's incomprehensible. I have a degree in English literature, went to some really good schools, and am very good with language generally...and I cannot make any sense of Old English. The only people who could understand it are professors and other professionals who have made it their business to learn it, which is probably like 1% of the population. The answer to the question is definitely "False."
Absolutely. Old English in not intelligible to modern English speakers, no two ways about it. And it has nothing to do with intelligence, whatever earlier posters may think about the matter.
English is not your language? Let me guess, you speak another Germanic language.
I hope you realize that makes it far *easier* to decipher Old English. English has wandered much farther from its proto-Germanic roots than other Germanic languages, and the largest changes happened between Old and Middle English thanks to the massive French influence in the Middle Ages.
Speaking a language that maintained many Germanic features that English has lost would be a huge leg up in understanding.
To correct your earlier analogy, it would be like asking a someone who speaks French if they can understand Old French, vs someone who speaks French and Sardinian. Speaking two Romance languages makes it much easier, and especially speaking a Romance language more similar to classical Latin.
I must be going crazy, I could have sworn that question said "Ronald Reagan" when I was doing the quiz and I laughed at it before choosing false. When I read through the questions afterwards and saw that it was Abraham Lincoln, I felt dumb.
He didn't invent that either. It's been around for centuries with the Venetian Arsenal being the preeminent example during the Middle Ages and Renaissance.
What Ford did do was improve the processes for making automobiles to such a huge degree that they became affordable to the average American. Between 1909 and 1925 the inflation-adjusted cost of the Model T fell by more than 80%. By 1929, the vast majority of American families owned a car, and 79% of the world's automobiles were located in the United States.
You know what, when I wrote that, I thought "I should confirm he actually invented the assembly line too, because he probably didn't," but I was too lazy to bother, and I really should know there's no getting away with that on this site.
I was just having this conversation yesterday. There's no getting away with 'that' on the internet generally. There are experts in every imaginable field online. If you go around making assertions and you don't have your facts straight, you're going to get embarrassed. I'm more careful than I used to be about re-evaluating what I really know.
the ussr was not the first country to put a satellite into orbit, i was germany. during ww2 a v2 rockets targeting computer had a bug which sent it into space.
I have few words to describe how much I hate this pseudocode. == for assignment and = for a conditional? Diabolical. Semicolons to terminate a conditional expression and to terminate assignment statements? Ugly. Hyphens for no particular reason? Intercalesque.
But in any case, orbit isn't a function of altitude but of velocity.
Well some countries did have more causalties in WWI than WWII (going by a quick search: e.g. France, Italy, Canada, Austria-Hungary, United Kingdom, Australia and others - and that's not counting the Spanish flu pandemic). In addition, people are suspicious of any obvious answers on tricky quizzes like this one...
I grew up in a mixed Frisian/English household. In uni, I met someone who studied Old English -- I was able to understand about 25% when he read it to me, depending on the passage. A few decades later, I still understand some Frisian but I'm not even attempting Old English. There are some basic words (food, animals, color etc) that match but not enough to understand Beowulf.
This may sound a little controversial, but colonisation usually involves transported large numbers of people to a country to usurp the indigenous population.
A comparison would be Australia/USA/Canada versus say India/Kenya/Egypt.
Modern definition now include "exerting control", but this was not the original meaning.
Generally speaking the british generally though quite highly of the french during the early modern and modern periods either as a powerful but respectable enemy or as a major ally.
As for why waterloo is more remembered than any of Napoleons other battles when most other generals are remembered for thier greatest victories.
One: many great generals are often remembered by thier biggest defeats, Romel and elAlamaine, Cornwallis and Yorktown, Xerxes and Darius and Marathon and Salamis, Leonidus and Themopoli, Richard I and the 3rd crusade.
Two most of the Napoleonic wars tend not to be taught at schools only the pivotal battles of trafalga and waterloo get any real focus which is farly common with History general knowledge, think of how many battles you would have studied for the hundred years war, usually just crecy and agincourt, mayby the siege of orleans
The fact that Nelson achieved victory with fewer ships than the enemy meant that the British Navy retained naval supremacy throughout the 18th century and everything else, good and bad, which followed.
If Wellington had lost at Waterloo, Napoleon would certainly have marched in Belgium, so no more waffles and we would have a differently named waterproof boot.
So really, it's the magnitude and consequence of the loss that retains the greatest after-image. That and history being written by the victors.
Napoleon and Wellington were pretty evenly matched, at about 70 000 men each - but Napoleon had more artillery by far. The decisive turning point of the battle was the early arrival of the Prussian army under Blücher, which turned the tide with its 50 000 men and 126 cannons. Right off the bat, if anything, it sounds more like an Anglo-Prussian victory. But then you have to take into account that basically all of Europe was allied against Naopleon! In fact, Wellington's forces were only about a third British (25 000 Brits, 17 000 Dutch soldiers, the rest mainly coming from various German states such as Hanover, Brunswick...).
Sounds more like a collective win to me!
What I'm saying is: be very careful with History when written by the British, especially when it's about the French!
For example, think of all those questions about European cities being at the same latitude of (surprising) American cities. The interesting fact is how far north those cities are, so asking a question where the answer is "Yes, just as you'd expect, warm Rome is further south than cold Minneapolis" is just not an interesting trivia question. Surprising someone with a counterintuitive answer is the point of questions like that.
So it's a clever question, because it runs counter to this meta-gaming of wondering why you're asking if one of the greatest generals in history lost more battles--because it's an interesting fact if true, and a boring fact if untrue.
Old English is a lot more different from modern English than Middle English is, but not incomprehensible imo. English is not even my language but I can decypher most of old texts (or at least after I have seen it written phonetically). I have an interest for it though, that helps. I love seeing the connection of words through different languages and see each word as a puzzle
Especially when the question is phrased "more or less". Personally I would be tempted to say yes. Now if it was phrased "perfectly completely easily"
This is a line of king Ælfred's version of Boethius "consoliatione philosophiae". I came across it while roaming around just now, falling deeper and deeper into the subject as one does (for some it is catvideo's though..) I found it rather fitting ;).
It means loosely translated; "You understand well enough what I am saying to you".More literal "You well enough understand what I speak to you"
And verbatim " You enough well understand what I you to speak"
Given that Old English has zero native speakers, people are probably going to be encountering it written down.
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=CH-_GwoO4xI
Old English is almost perfectly incomprehensible to the modern English speaker, although you might be able to pick out a word or two once in awhile.
The modern German related word is 'wofür', which literally means 'what for' or 'for what reason' - the long way round of say 'why' in modern English.
I appreciate the distinctions may be well known to linguists or those who study the changing nature of languages, but to pleb like me .........
At its essence, the question is basically just a roundabout way of asking: "Do you know what Old English is?"
To which your answer is (or was, until you took this quiz): "No, I don't."
So I think it's fine without that clarification.
I hope you realize that makes it far *easier* to decipher Old English. English has wandered much farther from its proto-Germanic roots than other Germanic languages, and the largest changes happened between Old and Middle English thanks to the massive French influence in the Middle Ages.
Speaking a language that maintained many Germanic features that English has lost would be a huge leg up in understanding.
To correct your earlier analogy, it would be like asking a someone who speaks French if they can understand Old French, vs someone who speaks French and Sardinian. Speaking two Romance languages makes it much easier, and especially speaking a Romance language more similar to classical Latin.
What Ford did do was improve the processes for making automobiles to such a huge degree that they became affordable to the average American. Between 1909 and 1925 the inflation-adjusted cost of the Model T fell by more than 80%. By 1929, the vast majority of American families owned a car, and 79% of the world's automobiles were located in the United States.
source
https://www.space.com/v2-rocket
if Altitude > 2000 km;
- Space == true;
- Orbit == false;
else if Altitude = 160 km;
- Space == true;
- Orbit == true;
else if Altitude < 160 km && Altitude >= 100 km;
- Space == true;
- Orbit == false;
else;
- Space == false;
- Orbit == false;
}
But in any case, orbit isn't a function of altitude but of velocity.
A comparison would be Australia/USA/Canada versus say India/Kenya/Egypt.
Modern definition now include "exerting control", but this was not the original meaning.