Biology AQA Year One A-Level

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paulhollywood
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Last updated: May 19, 2026
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the similar biochemical basis for life for all living things evidences ____
evolution
small units from which larger molecules are made
monomers
made from many monomers joined together
polymers
two molecules react to form a chemical bond and eliminate a water molecule
condensation
a chemical bond between two molecules is broken by addition of a water molecule
hydrolysis
commonly used by cells as respiratory substrates, form structural components in plasma membranes and cell walls
carbohydrates
the monomers from which larger carbohydrates are made
monosaccharides
formed by the condensation of two monosaccharides
disaccharides
glucose + glucose
maltose
glucose + fructose
sucrose
glucose + galactose
lactose
glucose has two ____ called alpha and beta glucose
isomers
alpha glucose has a ____ group above the ring on carbon 5 whereas beta glucose has a ____ group below the ring
hydroxyl
test for ____: two drops of iodine + two drops of food sample, blue black coloration
starch
test for ____: heat in a water bath at 75C for 5 minutes, brick red precipitate
reducing sugars
test for ____: heat in a water bath with dilute HCl, neutralise with sodiumhydrogencarbonate, test for reducing sugars
non reducing sugars
polysaccharide of alpha glucose used for storage in plants
starch
(1) found in seeds and ____ organs like tubers
storage
(2) chains may be ____ or un____
branched
(3) the unbranched chain is ____ and wound into a tight coil to compact the molecule
helical
(4) large and ____ so does not affect cell water potential or diffuse out of cells
insoluble
(5) the branched form has many ends for ____ enzymes to act on
hydrolytic
polysaccharide of alpha glucose used for storage in animals
glycogen
more highly branched due to the higher ____ needs of animals
respiratory
made up of monomers of beta glucose to form straight, unbranched chains
cellulose
(1) ____ bonds form cross links between individual chains
hydrogen
(2) molecules are groups into ____ which are further grouped into fibres
microfibrils
(3) major component of the ____ that provides rigidity to the plant cell
cell wall
(4) exerts an inward pressure that prevents osmotic lysis so allows cells to be ____
turgid
turgidity is important to maximise ____ for photosynthesis
surface area
the primary constituents of the plasma membrane bilayer, used in hormones and as respiratory substrates
lipids
formed by condensation of one molecule of glycerol with 3 fatty acids
triglycerides
glycerol and fatty acids are bonded by an ____ bond
ester
the R group of a fatty acid may be ____ or un____
saturated
(1) high ratio of energy storing C-H ____ so are a good source of energy
bonds
(2) low ____ to energy ratio
mass
(3) large and ____ so don't affect water potential
non polar
(4) release ____ when oxidised
water
in ____ one fatty acid of a triglyceride is substituted by a phosphate group
phospholipids
comprise of a ____philic phosphate head and a ____phobic fatty acid tail
hydro
(1) form a ____ in an aqueous environment
bilayer
(2) form ____ by combining with carbohydrates within the cell surface membrane
glycolipids
test for ____: shake with ethanol then add water and gently shake, milky white emulsion
lipids
form many cell structures and are important as enzymes, chemical messengers, components of the blood
proteins
____ are the monomers of protein
amino acids
chiral ____ around which R, COOH, H and NH2 are found
carbon
condensation between 2 amino acids forms a ____ bond
peptide
formed by condensation of two amino acids
dipeptide
formed by condensation of many amino acids (a functional protein may contain one or more)
polypeptide
the sequence of amino acids joined by peptide bonds
primary strucutre
initial folding by formation of hydrogen bonds into alpha helices or beta pleated sheets
secondary structure
further folding into the complex specific 3D structure maintained by disulfide, ionic, hydrogen bonds and van der Waal's forces
tertiary structure
the combination of a number of polypeptide chains and sometimes a non-protein
quarternary structure
a non-protein group associated with a protein
prosthetic group
test for ____: Biuret test. add equal volumes of sample and sodium hydroxide, add very dilute copper sulfate, purple coloration
proteins
biological catalysts
enzymes
the active site forms as the enzyme and substrate interact and conformational change in the active site weakens bonds in the substrate
induced fit model
prior model of enzyme action
lock and key
enzymes are specific because they have different shaped ____
active sites
increasing temperature increases rate of reaction up until the optimum is passed, where the enzyme ____
denatures
changing pH alters the ____ on the enzyme's amino acids so changing it from the optimum decreases rate
charges
increasing enzyme or substrate concentration increase rate until the other factor becomes ____
limiting
occupy the enzyme's active site in competition with the substrate
competitive inhibitor
occupy the enzyme's allosteric site and deform the active site
non competitive inhibitor
DNA holds genetic information and RNA transfers that from DNA to the ____
ribosome
pentose sugar + nitrogeneous base + phosphate group
nucleotide
a condensation between two nucleotides forms a ____ bond
phosphodiester
nitrogenous bases: adenine, guanine, cytosine and then thymine/____ for DNA/RNA
uracil
DNA is a ____ helix with hydrogen bonds between complementary base pairs
double
____ is a short polynucleotide chain
RNA
____ replication of DNA ensures genetic continuity between generations of cells
semi conservative
(1) the ____ bonds between bases in the double helix are broken
hydrogen
(2) ____ catalyses this
DNA helicase
(3) free DNA nucleotides pair to the strands by ____ base pairing
complementary
(4) ____ catalyses formation of phosphodiester bonds between adjacent nucleotides
DNA polymerase
this model was proved by ____ and Stahn
Meselston
(1) grew bacteria in a broth containing a heavy ____ of nitrogen
isotope
(2) bacteria with DNA containing only heavy ____ replicated in a broth containing light ____
nitrogen
(3) DNA was extracted and ____
centrifuged
____ replication would predict two distinct bands
conservative
the actual result was one band somewhere in the middle indicating ____ replication
semi conservative
ribose + adenine + 3 phosphate groups
adenosine triphosphate/ATP
hydrolysis of ATP to ADP and an inorganic phosphate is catalysed by ____
ATP hydrolase
the inorganic phosphate released can ____ other compounds and make them more reactive
phosphorylate
ATP is resynthesised by ____ during photosynthesis or respiration
ATP synthase
water is a ____ in many reactions such as hydrolysis
metabolite
water is a ____ in which metabolic reactions occur
solvent
water has a high specific ____ buffering changes in temperature
specific heat capacity
water has a high ____ heat of vaporisation, providing a cooling effect through evaporation
latent
water is ____ which supports columns of water in plants and produces surface tension on the surface of water supporting small organisms
cohesive
____ ions determine pH (more hydrogen ions means lower pH)
hydrogen
____ ions are used in haemoglobin to bind to oxygen
iron
____ ions are used in cotransport of glucose and amino acids
sodium
____ ions are components of DNA and ATP
phosphate
all life on Earth exists as ____ which have basic features in common
cells
all cells arise from other ____
cells
all cells have a ____
cell surface membrane
phospholipid bilayer, controls movement of substances into and out of cells, selectively permeable, cell signalling
cell surface membrane
contains genetic information in the form of chromosomes
nucleus
transcribes ribosomal RNA
nucleolus
site of aerobic respiration
mitochondria
site of photosynthesis
chloroplast
series of cisternae and vesicles - process, package and transport lipids and proteins, synthesises lysosomes
Golgi apparatus
contains hydrolytic enzymes used to break down waste material
lysosome
site of protein synthesis
ribosome
network of cisternae covered in ribosomes involved in the synthesis and transport of proteins
rough endoplasmic reticulum
network of cisternae that synthesises, stores and transports lipids and carbohydrates
smooth endoplasmic reticulum
supports the cell, prevents it from bursting, made up of polysaccharides
cell wall
large and central, contains cell sap, surrounded by the tonoplast (membrane), maintains pressure within the cell
permanent vacuole
____ are specialised by having no nucleus and a large amount of haemoglobin
erythrocytes
____ have a lobed nucleus to fit through small gaps in capillary walls and have large quantities of RER to produce lytic enzymes
phagocytes
____ cells have many mitochondria to give energy for swimming
sperm
____ cells have many chloroplasts to absorb light for photosynthesis
palisade
prokaryotic cells do not have ____
membrane bound organelles
instead of a nucleus they have a ____ DNA molecule
circular
their cell wall contains ____
murein
many also have plasmids, flagella, pilli, and/or a ____ capsule
slime
viruses are ____ and non-living. they comprise of genetic material, capside and attachment proteins
acellular
image size / actual size
magnification
minimum distance apart two objects can be and still appear as separate items
resolution
resolution of a light microscope is about ____ micrometres
0.2
light microscopes have poor resolution due to the long ____ of visible light
wavelength
____ microscopes have a higher resolution because ____s have a short wavelength
electron
in light microscopes the beam is focussed by glass ____
lenses
in electron microscopes the beam is focussed by ____
electromagnets
resolution of electron microscopes is about ____ nanometres
0.1
an electron microscope requires a ____ to prevent electrons being absorbed or deflected by molecules in the air
vacuum
____ electron microscope: the beam passes though a thin section of the specimen
transmission
parts of the specimen ____ electrons and appear dark, others transmit them and appear bright
absorb
the image can be photographed to give a 2D ____
photomicrograph
cannot observe ____ specimens because the system is in a vacuum
living
requires a complex preparation and even then the image is not in ____
colour
the specimen must be very ____
thin
the image may contain ____
artefacts
things that result from the way the specimen is prepared
artefacts
____ electron microscope: passes the beam back and forth across a portion of the specimen
scanning
the electrons are ____ according to the specimen's surface contours so we can build up a 3D image based on the scattering pattern
scattered
its resolving power is ____ than a TEM but specimens need not be so thin
lower/less
we measure the size of objects on a light microscope using an ____
eyepiece graticule
we calibrate this using the ____
stage micrometer
process where cells are broken up and the different organelles they contain are separated out
cell fractionation
(1) the tissue is placed in a ____ solution to reduce enzyme activity
cold
the solution is ____ to prevent organelles bursting or shrinking
isotonic
the solution is ____ to prevent the structure of organelles or enzymes changing
buffered
(2) cells are broken up by a ____
homogeniser
(3) the ____ is filtered to remove debris
homogenate
(4) ____ separates the fragments by density
ultracentrifugation
spin on a low speed, and the densest organelles will form the ____
pellet
spin the ____ on a slightly higher speed and the next densest organelles will be separated out
supernatant
eukaryotic cells that retain the ability to divide have a ____
cell cycle
the part of the cell cycle where DNA replication occurs
interphase
a eukaryotic cell divides to produce 2 daughter cells, genetically identical to each other and the parent
mitosis
the chromosomes condense and become visible, spindle apparatus starts to form at the centrioles, nucleolus disappears, nuclear envelope breaks down
prophase
chromosomes arrange themselves at the equator and the spindle fibres attach at the centromere, mitochondria gather around spindle fibres
metaphase
centromere divides and the spindle fibres contract to pull the individual chromatids to opposite poles
anaphase
chromosomes uncondense into chromatin, spindle fibres disintegrate, nuclear envelope and nucleolus reform
telophase
the cytoplasm divides
cytokinesis
prokaryotic cells divide by ____
binary fission
the circular DNA and plasmids replicate and the cytoplasm divides to produce two daughter cells with a single copy of the circular DNA and a ____ number of plasmids
variable
phospholipids in the cell surface membrane: (1) allow ____ substances to enter/leave the cell
lipid soluble
(2) prevent ____ soluble substances entering and leaving the cell
water
(3) make the membrane flexible and self ____
sealing
proteins that occur in in the surface of the bilayer, give mechanical support or act with glycolipids as cell receptors e.g. for hormoes
extrinsic
span the bilayer, carrier or channel proteins
intrinsic
restricts the movement of molecules making up the membrane
cholesterol
carbohydrate covalently bonded to a lipid, extend outside of the cell, act as recognition sites and help cells attach and form tissues
glycolipid
carbohydrate attached to extrinsic protein, help cells attach, help cells recognise one another
glycoprotein
the cell membrane is ____ to control what enters and leaves
selectively permeable
the cell membrane is modelled as the ____ model
fluid mosaic
____ because the individual phospholipids move relative to each other
fluid
____ because the proteins embedded vary in size and shape
mosaic
net movement of molecules or ions from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration directly across the bilayer
simple diffusion
diffusion using channel or carrier protein
facilitated diffusion
the net movement of water from a region of higher water potential to a region of lower water potential
osmosis
the movement of molecules or ions into or out of a cell from a region of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration using ATP and carrier proteins
active transport
(1) substance binds to receptor sites on the inside of the ____
carrier protein
(2) ATP ____ the protein and changes its shape
phosphorylates
(3) the carrier opens to the opposite side of the ____ and releases the substance
membrane/bilayer
(4) the ____ is released and the protein reverts to its original shape
phosphate
the movement of one molecule down its concentration gradient drives the transport of a second molecule against its gradient
cotransport
occurs notably in the ____
ileum
(1) ____ ions are actively transported out of epithelial cells into the blood
sodium
(2) sodium ions diffuse into the epithelial cells from the ____ down a concentration gradient
lumen
(3) they diffuse in through a ____ protein and carry glucose or amino acids with them
cotransport
cells specialised for membrane transport may have: (1) folded membranes to increase ____
surface area
(2) large numbers of ____ proteins
intrinsic
(3) many mitochondria to produce ATP for ____
active transport
a molecule present on the surface of a cell which triggers an immune response
antigen
____ limits effectiveness of vaccines because antibodies are no longer complementary
antigen variability
process of phagocytosis: part of the ____ immune response
non specific
(1) chemical products of pathogens act as attractants and the ____ move towards the pathogen
phagocytes
(2) they engulf the pathogen to form a ____
phagosome
(3) lysosomes fuse with the vesicle to form a ____
phagolysosome
(4) hydrolytic enzymes destroy ingested bacteria by ____ their cell walls
hydrolysing
(5) the soluble products are absorbed into the cytoplasm and the ____ are presented on the cell surface membrane
antigens
cells that display foreign antigens on their surface
antigen presenting cells
T-lymphocytes are responsible for ____ immunity
cell mediated
the receptors on each T-cell respond to a specific ____ and a specific T-cell binds to the ____s on an APC
antigen
this activates ____ of the specific T-lymphocyte
clonal expansion
these cloned T-cells can do one of four things: (1) develop into ____ cells that enable a rapid response to future infections by the same pathogen
T-memory
(2) stimulate phagocytes to engulf pathogens by ____
phagocytosis
(3) stimulate B-lymphocytes to divide and secrete their ____
antibody
(4) activate ____ T-cells which produce perforin and kill abnormal cells by making their membranes freely permeable
cytotoxic
B-lymphocyte are responsible for ____ immunity
humoral
(1) the surface ____ of an invading pathogen are taken up, processed and presented by a B-cell
antigens
(2) the T-____ cells attach to the antigens and activate clonal expansion of the B-cell
helper
(3) the B-cell clones to give ____ cells that produce and secrete the specific antibody
plasma
some B-cells will differentiate into ____ cells to respond to future infections
B-memory
where a lymphocyte is chosen and activated to respond to a specific antigen
clonal selection
a protein produced by the immune system in response to foreign substances with specific binding sites
antibody
antibodies are made up of ____ polypeptide chains: 2 heavy and 2 light
four
the two binding sites that fit the antigen precisely to form an antigen-antibody complex
variable region
the part of the antibody that is not specific to an antigen
constant region
antibodies cause ____ of bacterial cells to group them together and make it easier for the phagocytes to locate them
agglutination
production of antibodies and memory cells
primary immune response
memory cells differentiate into plasma cells to produce antibodies, faster and to an increased quantity
secondary immune response
Hint
Answer
produced by the introduction of antibodies into individuals from an outside source
passive immunity
produced by stimulating the production of antibodies by the individual’s own immune system
active immunity
the introduction of antigens into the body in order to stimulate an immune response
vaccination
when a large proportion has been vaccinated so it's difficult for a pathogen to spread
herd immunity
HIV structure: capsid, RNA, enzymes including ____, lipid envelope, attachment proteins, capsid
reverse transcriptase
HIV is a retrovirus because its RNA is converted to DNA by ____
reverse transcriptase
process of HIV replication: (1) a protein on the HIV attaches to a CD4 ____ cell
T helper
(2) the ____ fuses with the cell surface membrane and the RNA and enzymes enter the cell
capsid
(3) the RNA is transcribed to DNA by ____
reverse transcriptase
(4) the viral DNA is moved into the nucleus and inserted into the ____
genome
(5) the viral ____ and polypeptides are produced by the cell and assembled into new virus particles
mRNA
(6) the particles break away from the T-cell, taking with them a piece of the cell surface membrane to form the ____
lipid envelope
HIV causes the symptoms of ____ by interfering with helper T-cell function
AIDS
without enough T-helper cells the immune system can't stimulate B cells or ____ T cells so the immune response is weakened
cytotoxic
viruses are not susceptible to ____ because they do not have their own cell wall/metabolic pathway for them to target
antibiotics
a ____ is formed by fusion of a B-plasma cell and a tumour cell from mice
hybridoma
these are then cloned and can produce ____
monoclonal antibodies
you can produce monoclonal antibodies specific to ____ cells, attach a therapeutic drug, allowing for a localised approach to killing a tumour
cancer
monoclonal antibodies ethics: (1) involves deliberately inducing ____ in mice
cancer
(2) saved lives but also deaths associated with their use in treating ____ sclerosis
multiple
(3) human ____ for safety of new drugs are dangerous
trials
vaccines ethics: (1) ____ often used for production and testing, harming them
animals
(2) can have ____ effects that cause long term harm
side
(3) hard to make fully effective without making them ____ which can be seen as unethical
compulsory/mandatory
ELISA test
enzyme linked immunosorbent assay
(1) apply the sample to a surface to which all the ____ in the sample will attach
antigens
(2) ____ to remove unattached antigens
wash
(3) add ____ specific to the antigen we are trying to detect and leave to bind
antibody
(4) ____ to remove excess antibody
wash
(5) add a second antibody that binds to the first one with an attached ____
enzyme
(6) ____ to remove any unattached antibody
wash
(7) add the colourless ____ of the enzyme - colour change will occur if enzyme is present
substrate
(8) amount of ____ present is relative to the intensity of the colour
antigen
used in tests for HIV, tuberculosis, hepatitis, drug tests (because the ____ nature of the test is important)
quantitative
as organisms become larger, their surface area decreases compared to their ____
volume
large organisms thus need specialised ____ associated with mass transport systems to increase their SA:V ratio
exchange surfaces
features of these: (1) large ____ to increase rate of exchange
surface area
(2) very thin for a short ____
diffusion distance
(3) movement of the ____ to maintain a diffusion gradient
environmental medium
(4) a transport system to ensure the movement of the ____ also to maintain a diffusion gradient
internal medium
in single-celled organisms, gases are transported across the ____
cell surface membrane
insects have an internal network of ____ supported by strengthened rings
tracheae
the tracheae divide into smaller dead-end ____
tracheoles
these extend through all the insect's body tissues, allowing atmospheric air to be brought directly to all the ____ tissues
respiring
respiratory gases move in and out of the ____ system in 3 ways:
tracheal
(1) when cells respire, oxygen is used up, so its concentration falls in the tracheoles, so oxygen diffuses in (opposite direction for ____)
carbon dioxide
(2) the contraction of muscles in insects can squeeze the trachea allowing ____ movement of air in and out
mass
(3) the ends of the tracheoles are filled with ____
water
during ____, lactate is produced which lowers water potential of muscle cells
lactate
therefore water moves into the cells by osmosis and the ____ of water in the ends of the tracheoles decreases so air is drawn in
volume
gases enter and leave the trachea through ____
spiracles
in fish, the gills are made up of stacks of ____
gill filaments
gill ____ are perpendicular to the filaments and increase surface area
lamellae
water is taken in through the ____ and forced over the gills
mouth
____ flow of water and blood maintains a diffusion gradient across the whole length of the gill
counter current
leaves have many small pores called ____
stomata
there are numerous air spaces in the ____ so gases readily come in contact with ____ cells (which have a large surface area)
mesophyll
stomata are surrounded by a pair of ____ cells which open and close dependening on water potential
guard
water loss is limited in insects by: (1) waterproof ____ on body surface
cuticle
(2) ____ can be closed to reduce water loss (largely done when organism is at rest)
spiracles
(3) small SA:V ratio to minimise ____ over which water is lost
area
plants limit water loss by: (1) stomata close when ____ is low to conserve water when necessary
water potential
(2) waterproof waxy ____ on parts of the leaf
cuticle
plants that live in areas with low supplies of water
xerophytes
xerophyte adaptations: (1) thicker ____
cuticle
(2) leaves roll up to trap ____ and reduce the water potential gradient between the internal and external environment
vapour
(3) the leaves have ____ to trap moist air next to the leaf surface
hair
(4) ____ in pits or grooves trap air and reduce the water potential gradient
stomata
(5) reduced surface area of the leaves (but must be balanced with sufficient area for ____)
photosynthesis
in humans: (1) flexible airway supported by cartilage
trachea
(2) two divisions of the trachea are the ____ which branch into the ____oles
bronchi
(3) air sacs at the end of the bronchioles
alveoli
inspiration: (1) ____ intercostal muscles contract
external
(2) ribs are pulled up and out to increase volume of the ____
thorax
(3) reduces ____ to below atmospheric and forces air into the lungs
pressure
expiration: (1) ____ intercostal muscles contract
internal
(2) ribs move downwards and inwards, ____ volume, increasing pressure, forcing air out
decreasing
gas exchange is very rapid between the alveoli and blood because: (1) red blood cells are slowed as they pass through ____ capillaries allowing more time for diffusion
pulmonary
(2) the distance between alveolar air and red blood cells is reduced as the red blood cells are flattened against the ____ walls
capillary
(3) capillary and alveoli walls are both very thin to reduce ____
diffusion distance
(4) alveoli and pulmonary capillaries have a very large ____
surface area
(5) breathing movement ventilates the lungs and the action of the heart circulates blood to ensure a steep ____
concentration gradient
large biological molecules are hydrolysed to smaller molecules that can be absorbed across cell membranes
digestion
carbohydrates are initially digested by ____ which denatures in the low pH of the stomach
salivary amylase
the pancreas releases enzymes into the ____ including carbohydrases
duodenum
muscles in the intestinal wall push food along the ____
ileum
membrane-bound ____ hydrolyse maltose to glucose for example
disaccharidases
lipids are hydrolysed by pancreatic ____ into fatty acids and monoglycerides
lipases
a glycerol molecule with a single fatty acid attached
monoglyceride
lipids being split up into smaller droplets by bile salts to increase surface area
emulsification
in absorption, monoglycerides and fatty acids remain associated with bile salts to form ____
micelles
bile salts make lipids water soluble because they are ____
polar
(1) the micelles come into contact with the ____ cells lining the villi of the ileum
epithelial
(2) they break down and release the non-polar monoglycerides and fatty acids which enter the epithelial cells by ____
simple diffusion
(3) once inside the epithelial cells, the monoglycerides and fatty acids are transported to the ____ and recombined
endoplasmic reticulum
(4) they are packaged into ____ in the ER and Golgi by associating with cholesterol and lipoproteins
chylomicrons
(5) these move out of the epithelial cells by ____
exocytosis
they enter capillaries by ____ that are found at the centre of each villus
lacteals
proteins are digested by: (1) ____ which hydrolyse peptide bonds in the centre of polypeptides
endopeptidases
(2) ____ which hydrolyse peptide bonds at the end of polypeptides
exopeptidases
(3) ____ which hydrolyse the peptide bonds between two amino acids of a dipeptide
membrane bound dipeptidases
amino acids and monosaccharides are both absorbed from the ileum by ____
cotransport
haemoglobin structure: four polypeptide chains each with an associated ____ group
haem
the process by which haemoglobin binds with oxygen. takes place in the lungs
association
the process by which oxygen is released. takes place in the tissues
dissociaton
haemoglobin has a greater affinity for oxygen where ____ of oxygen is higher
partial pressure
oxygen binds ____ because the first oxygen binding changes the shape of the haemoglobin and makes it easier for the next to bind
cooperatively
the ____ effect: a greater carbon dioxide concentration decreases pH of the blood and changes the shape of the haemoglobin to one that more readily unloads oxygen
Bohr
____ circulatory system: blood is confined to vessels
closed
____ circulatory system: blood passes twice through the heart for each complete circuit of the body
double
the double system is useful because blood ____ is reduced in the lungs and it needs to be high enough to reach all the tissues
pressure
thin walled, elastic chamber, stretches as it collects blood
atrium
thicker, muscular wall, contracts strongly to pump blood
ventricle
connected to left ventricle and carries oxygenated blood to all parts of the body except the lungs
aorta
connected to the right atrium and brings deoxygenated blood back from the tissues of the body (except the lungs)
vena cava
connected to the right ventricle and carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs, where oxygen is replenished and carbon dioxide is removed
pulmonary artery
connected to the left atrium and brings oxygenated blood back from the lungs
pulmonary vein
____ artery ____ renal vein: carry blood to and from the kidneys
renal
semilunar valves closed, atrioventricular valves open, blood moves into atria and ventricles
diastole
atria contact and force blood into ventricles. semilunar valves closed, atrioventricular valves open
atrial systole
atria relax, ventricles contract, push blood away from heart. atrioventricular valves closed, semilunar valves open
ventricular systole
use of ____ valve: prevent backflow of blood when contraction of ventricles makes ventricular pressure exceed atrial pressure
atrioventricular
use of ____ valve: prevent backflow of blood into the ventricles when pressure in the vessels increases when elastic walls recoil
semilunar
use of ____ valve: ensure that when veins are squeezed when skeletal muscles contract, blood does not flow backwards
pocket
carry blood away from the heart and into arterioles
arteries
smaller arteries that control blood flow from arteries to capillaries
arterioles
tiny vessels that link arterioles to veins
capillaries
carry blood from capillaries back to the heart
veins
arteries, arterioles and veins have the same layers. from the ____ layer:
outer
(1) tough, fibrous layer that resists ____ changes
pressure
(2) ____ layer that can contract to control the flow of blood
muscle
(3) ____ layer that helps maintain blood pressure by stretching and recoiling
elastic
(4) ____ to reduce friction that is thin to allow diffusion
smooth endothelium
(5) the central cavity through which blood flows
lumen
____ have a thicker muscle layer than veins so they can constrict and dilate to control volume within them
arteries
they also have a thick elastic layer to keep pressure ____
high
____ have a thinner elastic layer and thicker muscle layer due to lower blood pressure and a need to restrict flow into capillaries respectively
arterioles
____ are numerous and highly branched to increase surface area for exchange
capillaries
they have a narrow diameter to permeate tissues and ensure no cell is far from a capillary (short ____)
diffusion distance
their ____ is narrow so red blood cells are flat against the side to reduce diffusion distance
lumen
there are spaces between the endothelial cells that make them up to allow ____ blood cells to deal with infections in tissues
white
networks of capillaries that connect veins and arterioles
capillary beds
watery fluid containing glucose, amino acids, ions, bathes all the cells of the body
tissue fluid
relatively constant environment for the cells it surrounds because it is formed from ____ whose composition is controlled by homeostasis
blood plasma
formed when ____ pressure at the arterial end of the capillary is great and fluid moves into the tissues
hydrostatic
____ occurs because cells and proteins remain in the blood
ultrafiltration
tissue fluid exchanges ____ materials with the cells it bathes and then returns to the circulatory system
metabolic
it can do this because hydrostatic pressure is lower at the venuous end (and ____ also occurs)
osmosis
some tissue fluid is carried back via the ____ system which drains its contents into the bloodstream via two ducts that join veins close to the heart
lymphatic
the contents of this system are moved by hydrostatic pressure of tissue fluid and by ____ of body muscles that squeeze the lymph vessels
contraction
____ inside the vessels ensure unidirectional flow
valves
mass transport of water in plants: ____ theory
cohesion tension
water ____ out of the mesophyll cells and stomata
evaporates
more molecules are drawn up behind due to ____
cohesion
a column of water is pulled up the xylem due to transpiration: ____
transpiration pull
this puts the xylem under ____ - there is negative pressure within the xylem
tension
mass flow theory of ____ in the phloem:
sucrose
(1) sucrose moves into ____ down a concentration gradient from photosynthesising cells
companion cells
via facilitated ____
diffusion
(2) sucrose is contransported with ____ ions into the sieve tube elements
hydrogen
(3) this reduces water potential so water moves in from the xylem by ____
osmosis
(4) this creates a ____ pressure gradient from source to sink so sucrose moves in that direction
hydrostatic
(5) sucrose moves into companion cells at the sink by facilitated diffusion and is ____ into storage and respiring cells
actively transported
ringing experiment: remove a section of the outer layers around the circumference of a woody stem and the region above will ____
swell
non-____ tissues below the ring will die but those above will grow
photosynthetic
this suggests the ____ accumulate above the ring and disrupt flow to regions below
sugars
tracer experiment: make radioactively labeled ____ using carbon-14 and grow a plant in an environment with that
carbon dioxide
this isotope will be incorporated into sugars which can be traced as they move within the plant using ____
autoradiography
this means removing a thin cross section and placing it on ____ film
X ray
the blackened regions only occur where the phloem tissue is suggesting only the phloem is responsible for ____
translocation
a base sequence of DNA that codes for a particular protein at a locus
gene
the DNA code is ____ (same for all living things)
universal
the DNA code is ____ (some amino acids are coded for by more than one codon)
degenerate
the DNA code is ____ (each base is read exactly one)
non overlapping
a DNA molecule plus its associated histone proteins in a eukaryotic cell
chromosome
sequences of DNA that code for a polypeptide
exon
sequences of DNA that do not code for a polypeptide
intron
complete set of genes in a cell
genome
full range of proteins a cell is able to produce
proteome
transcription: (1) the ____ bonds between the strands are broken
hydrogen
(2) free RNA nucleotides pair with the exposed bases on the ____ strand
template
(3) ____ joins nucleotides to form a pre mRNA molecule
RNA polymerase
(4) the DNA strands rejoin behind the enzyme which detaches when it reaches a ____ sequence
terminator
(5) in eukaryotic cells the introns are removed by ____ (prokaryotic cells do not have introns)
splicing
(6) the mRNA leaves the nucleus through a ____
nuclear pore
translation: (1) a ribosome attaches to the ____ codon on the mRNA
start
(2) the tRNA molecule with the complementary ____ moves to the ribosome and pairs to the complementary mRNA codon
anticodon
(3) the ____ moves along the mRNA, bringing together two tRNA molecules at any one time
ribosome
(4) the amino acids are joined by a ____ bond using ATP and when this happens the tRNA is released
peptide
(5) this continues until the ribosome reaches a ____ codon at which point the polypeptide is released
stop
spontaneous changes to the base sequence of DNA
mutations
____ agents increase rate of gene mutation
mutagenic
mutations in the number of chromosomes arise spontaneously by chromosome ____ in meiosis
non disjunction
meiosis: two nuclear divisions result in the formation of four ____ daughter cells from one diploid parent cell
haploid
genetically different daughter cells arise due to ____ of homologous chromosomes when they line up at random during metaphase 1
independent segregation
where homologous chromosomes exchange genes at their loci
crossing over
number of different alleles in a population
genetic diversity
natural selection (1) mutation gives rise to a new ____
allele
(2) the allele may benefit its possessor and increase chance of survival and ____
reproduction
(3) the advantageous allele is more likely to be inherited and increases in ____ over many generations
frequency
the population moves towards an extreme
directional selection
the population moves towards the median
stabilising selection
____ results in species better adapted to their environment in a way that is anatomical, physiological or behavioural
natural selection
organisms that can breed to produce living fertile offspring
species
____ behaviour allows individuals to identify a species-specific partner to mate with
courtship
a ____ classification system arranges species into groups based on their evolutionary relationships
phylogenetic
Linnaeus taxa
domain kingdom phylum class order family genus species
the number of different species in a community
species richness
the relationship between the number of species in a community and the number of individuals of each species
index of diversity
farming techniques reduce ____ because it reduces variation in habitat and food sources
biodiversity
you need to balance ____ with farming
conservation
e.g. maintain and plant hedgerows at field boundaries, reduce pesticide use, crop rotation that includes a nitrogen fixing crop to increase soil fertility, ____ to control weeds and pests, maintain existing ponds instead of draining for farmland
intercropping
you can find information about genetic diversity by comparing: (1) ____ of measurable or observable characteristics
frequency
(2) ____ sequence of DNA or mRNA
base
(3) ____ sequence of the proteins encoded by DNA and mRNA
amino acid
gene ____ has changed methods of investigating genetic diversity by favouring direct investigation of DNA sequences over investigating observable and measurable characteristics
technology
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