Biology AQA Year Two A Level

light dependent reaction: (1) a pair of electrons in ____ absorb light energy

(2) they leave the molecule (____)

(3) they are passed along the ____ which is a series of protein carriers in the thylakoid membrane

(4) the electrons lose energy at each stage, some of which is conserved in production of ____

(5) ____ of water replenishes the chlorophyll electrons - also produces protons and oxygen

(6) protons pass out of the thylakoid space and they, along with the electron pair, reduce ____

the oxygen is a ____ and diffuses out of the leaf or can be used in respiration

ATP is produced by ____ theory

(1) protons are pumped from the ____ to the thylakoid space

(2) this creates a concentration gradient of protons which can only pass out of the thylakoid space through ____ channel proteins

(3) as the protons pass through, they change the protein's shape and allow it to catalyst formation of ____

light independent reaction: (1) carbon dioxide reacts with ____

to produce 2 molecules of ____

which is catalysed by ____

(2) ATP and ____ are used to reduce GP

to ____

(3) some of this is used to regenerate RuBP in the ____ and some is converted to useful organic products

factors that affect ____ include: temperature, light intensity, carbon dioxide concentration

respiration stage one: ____

occurs in the ____ and is anaerobic

(1) glucose is phosphorylated to ____ using ATP

(2) which is converted to ____

(3) which is oxidised to ____

there is a net gain of ATP and ____

if respiration is only ____, pyruvate can be converted to ethanol or lactate using reduced NAD

the oxidised NAD produced in this way can be used in further ____

if respiration is aerobic, pyruvate enters the ____ by active transport

stage two: ____

(1) pyruvate is oxidised to ____, producing reduced NAD

(2) acetate combines with ____ to produce acetyl coenzyme A

stage three: ____

(1) acetyl coA reacts with a ____C molecule, releasing coA and producing a 6C molecule

(2) in a series of redox reactions, the Krebs cycle generates reduced coenzymes NAD and ____

and ATP by ____

synthesis of ATP by ____ is associated with transfer of electrons down the ETC and chemiosmotic theory across the inner mitochondrial membranes

plants synthesis organic compounds from ____

most of the sugars synthesised are used as ____ substrates and the rest to form other biological molecules

biological molecules form the ____ which is mass of carbon or dry tissue per given area

the chemical energy store in dry biomass can be estimated using ____

chemical energy store in plant biomass in a given area or volume

chemical energy store in plant biomass after respiratory losses to the environment have been taken into account

NPP is available for plant growth and reproduction and to other ____ levels in the ecosystem

net production of ____ = chemical energy store in ingested food – (chemical energy lost to the environment in faeces and urine + respiratory losses to the environment)

the synthesis of organic molecules from inorganic sources, primarily by plants and algae through photosynthesis (biomass per area per time)

the creation of new biomass by consumers (biomass per area per time)

increasing productivity while farming ____: restrict movement, warm environment to reduce heat loss, control feeding to minimise wastage and maximise growth, exclude predators

increasing productivity while farming ____: simplify food webs, pest control to minimise effects of pests (especially important in monocultures)

nitrogen cycle: plants take up ____ ions from their roots and animals by ingesting plants

nitrate ions are soluble and ____ through the soil

naturally, nitrate concentrations are largely restored by recycling nitrogen containing compounds but can use ____ agriculturally

where ammonia is produced from organic nitrogen-containing compounds

this occurs when ____ feed on dead organisms and break down their polypeptides e.g.

oxidation of ammonium to nitrite to nitrate by nitrifying bacteria

____ process so to raise productivity, farmers keep soil aerated by ploughing and employ good drainage to prevent air spaces filling with water

converting atmospheric nitrogen ____ to nitrogen containing compounds

can be done by free living or ____ bacteria (which live in root nodules on legumulous plants)

anaerobic denitrifying bacteria convert soil nitrates into gaseous nitrogen

symbiotic relationships between fungi and plant roots

fungae form long thin ____ that connect with plant roots and increase surface area of the root system, benefitting the plant by increasing absorption of water and inorganic ions

in return the fungi receive ____ compounds

natural ( ____ ) fertilisers consists of the dead and decaying remains of plants and animals and their wastes

artificial ( ____ ) fertilisers are mined from rocks and deposits then converted into different forms and blended to give the right balance for a particular crop

using nitrogen containing fertilisers can impact the environment: (1) reduced species ____ because nitrogen-rich soils favour fast-growing species

(2) ____ can cause nitrate ions to enter water sources. high nitrate concentration can prevent efficient oxygen transport in babies

(3) ____ where nitrate ions cease to be a limiting factor for plant and algal growth

causes ____ which absorbs light and prevents it penetrating to lower levels

the plants and algae below can no longer ____ and die

concentration of oxygen in the water is reduced and ____ organisms die

____ organisms have less competition and populations rise

these decompose dead material, releasing more nitrates and some toxic wastes like ____ which putrifies the water

in flowering plants, specific growth factors move from growing regions to other tissues where they regulate growth in response to ____ stimuli

IAA ( ____ ) controls plant cell elongation and is an auxin

____ is where plants grow in response to light

(1) cells in the ____ tip produce IAA which is initially transported evenly throughout all regions as it moves down the ____

(2) ____ causes movement of IAA from the light side to the shaded side

(3) a greater ____ of IAA builds up on the shaded side

(4) IAA causes ____ of shoot cells so the cells on the shaded side elongate more

this causes the shoot tip to bend ____ the light

____ is where plants grow in response to gravity

(1) cells in the ____ tip produce IAA which is initially transported evenly along the ____

(2) a greater concentration of IAA builds up on the ____ side of the root

(3) IAA ____ elongation of root cells so the cells on the lower side elongate less

(4) the root bends downwards towards the force of ____

a simple response whose direction is determined by the direction of the stimulus

moving towards a favourable stimulus

moving away from an unfavourable stimulus

an organism changes the speed at which it moves and the rate at which it changes direction

rate of turning ____ as an organism moves into an unfavourable environment, raising chances of returning quickly to a favourable one

as they get further into the unfavourable environment, rate of turning may ____ so that it moves in long straight lines before turning sharply

kinesis is important where a stimulus is not as ____

____ arc: stimulus, receptor, sensory neurone, intermediate neurone, motor neurone, effector, response

stimulation of a receptor by specific stimuli leads to establishment of a ____

the ____ responds to pressure and occurs deep in the skin

the single ____ of a Pacinian corpuscle is at the centre of layers of connective tissue separated by gel

a ____ surrounds the layers and there is a blood capillary in the ____

when pressure is applied, the PC is deformed, the membrane around the neurone is widened, and the ____ open

this ____ the membrane and produces a generator potential

this in turn creates an ____

the light receptor cells in a mammalian eye are found in the ____

rod cells: (1) cannot distinguish different ____ of light

(2) more numerous than ____

(3) many rod cells are connected to a single sensory neurone in the ____

(4) used to detect low ____ light

(5) many rod cells are connected to a single ____ cell

this is ____ and gives a greater change the threshold value will be exceeded than if only one rod cell were connected

this uses ____

(6) a certain ____ has to be exceeded before a generator can be created

(7) in order to create a generator potential, the ____ pigment in the rod cells must be broken down

low ____ light is enough to break this down

the light received by rod cells sharing the same ____ will only generate one impulse

this means rod cells give low ____ as the brain cannot distinguish separate sources of light that stimulated them

mostly found at the peripheries of the ____ where light intensity is low

____ cells are of three types, each responding to a different range of wavelengths of light

(1) they often have their own bipolar cell so ____ cannot be used to exceed the threshold but have good visual acuity

so they only respond to high light ____

(2) they contain ____ pigment which requires high intensity light to break down

(3) they are found mostly at the ____ (where light is focussed by the lens)

the heart muscle is ____ - contraction is initiated from within the muscle

process: (1) a wave of electrical excitation spreads out from the ____ in the right atrium wall

this spreads across both atria and causes them to ____

the ____ is non-conductive and prevents the wave crossing to the ventricles

(2) the wave enters the ____ which lies between the atria and there is a short delay to allow the atria to empty

(3) the AVN conveys the wave along the ____ tissue (which collectively makes up (4))

(4) the ____ conducts the wave through the atrioventricular septum to the base of the ventricles

(5) the wave of excitation is released from the Purkyne tissue, causing the ____ to contract

changes to heart rate are controlled by the ____ which has a centre for increasing heart rate and one for decreasing it

____ are sensitive to blood pH changes and are found in the wall of the carotid arteries

pressure receptors occur within the walls of the carotid arteries and the ____

low pH or low pressure cause an increase in ____ of impulses from these receptors to the medulla

along the ____ pathway

so the medulla increases frequency of impulses to the ____ and thus increases heart rate

high pH or high pressure transmit impulses along the ____ nervous system pathway to reduce heart rate

uses nerve cells to pass electrical impulses along their length, and stimulate target cells by releasing neurotransmitters. rapid, short-lived, localised response

glands produce hormones that are transported in the blood and stimulate receptors on target cell membranes. slower, longer-lasting, more widespread

a ____ motor neurone has the following structure:

(1) cell body containing cell organelles including large amounts of ____ to produce neurotransmitters

(2) ____ : extensions of the cell body that subdivide into dendrites and carry impulses towards the cell body

(3) a single long fibre that carries nerve impulses away from the cell body

(4) ____ cells which surround the axon, protect, insulate, carry out phagocytosis on debris, help nerve regeneration

their membranes wrap around the axon and layers build up and form the ____

(5) ____, where there are constrictions between adjacent Schwann cells with no myelin sheath

____ is maintained in the axon by actively transporting out sodium ions at a greater rate than actively transporting in portassium ions

resting potential is ____ mV in humans

here the axon is said to be ____

(1) the energy of a stimulus arriving causes some voltage-gated ____ ion channels to open

(2) sodium ions diffuse into the axon along their ____ gradient

(3) ____ feedback causes more sodium ion channels to open

(4) they trigger ____ of the axon

(5) the threshold potential of about ____ mV is established

(6) the voltage gated sodium ion channels close and the voltage gated ____ ion channels open

(7) potassium ions diffuse out, starting ____ of the axon

(8) this causes temporary ____

(9) the potassium ion channels close and once again ____ potential is established

along an ____ axon, this is how the action potential moves along the axon:

(1) the membrane is ____ at one point

(2) the localised ____ currents cause opening of sodium ion channels further along, causing depolarisation

(3) behind this new region of depolarisation, ____ occurs

(4) the action potential is ____ along the axon

along a ____ axon, the myelin sheath acts as an electrical insulator

the localised circuits jump between adjacent nodes of Ranvier - ____ conduction

a larger ____ of an axon leads to faster conduction due to less leakage of ions

higher temperatures can increase rate of diffuse of ions up to the point that relevant ____ denature

all ____ potentials are the same size

the individual can tell the size of a stimulus through ____ of impulses in a given time and by having neurones with different threshold values

the period where inward movement of sodium ions is prevented because the sodium voltage gated channels are closed

three purposes of this: (1) ensures action potentials are only ____ in one direction

(2) produces ____ impulses

(3) limits the number of action potentials in a given time so the strength of ____ that can be detected

synapses are ____ (impulses only travel one way)

summation where many neurones give an impulse

summation where one neurone gives many impulses in a short time

synapses that make it less likely a new action potential will be created on the postsynaptic neurone

(1) the presynaptic neurone releases neurotransmitter that binds to ____ channels on the postsynaptic neurone

(2) chloride ions move into the postsynaptic neurone by ____

(3) the binding of the neurotransmitter causes ____ ion channels to open and ____ ions to diffuse into the synapse

(4) this makes the membrane potential more negative ( ____ )

(5) this makes it less likely a new action potential will be created because a larger influx of ____ ions will be required

____ are stimulated to contract by nerves and act as effectors. they act in antagonistic pairs against an incompressible skeleton

made up of muscle fibres called ____

these share nuclei and cytoplasm (called ____ ) which is found at the circumference of the fibre and contains a large concentration of mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum

myofibrils are made up of (1) ____ which is thinner and consists of two strands twisted around one another

(2) ____ which is thicker and consists of long, rod-shaped tails with bulbous heads that project to the side

light bands in myofibrils: ____ bands, thick and thin filaments do not overlap, thin filaments only

dark bands: ____ bands, thick and thin filaments do overlap

lighter region at the centre of each A band, thick filaments only: ____ zone

at the centre of each I band is the ____ line

the distance between adjacent Z lines is called a ____

the point where a motor neurone meets a skeletal muscle fibre

all muscle fibres supplied by a single motor neurone

when a nerve impulse is received, ____ ions diffuse in and cause the synaptic vesicles to fuse with the presynaptic neurone

this releases ____ from the vesicles into the synaptic cleft which diffuses to the postsynaptic membrane of the muscle fibre

this opens ____ ion channels and depolarises the membrane

acetylcholine is broken down by ____ and the products diffuse back into the presynaptic neurone

evidence for the ____ mechanism of muscle contraction: I band, H zone, and sarcomere narrows but the A band remains the same width

thus it follow the ____ filaments have not become shorter

____ comprises of a fibrous protein tail and a globular protein head

____ is a globular protein whose molecules are twisted to form a helical strand

____ forms long thin strands that wind around actin filaments

(1) once the action potential has crossed the neuromuscular junction, it travels into the fibre trough a system of T-tubules that branch throughout the ____

(2) the ____ has actively transported calcium ions from the sarcoplasm so there is a very low concentration

(3) calcium ions are released and bind to ____, changing its shape and displacing tropomyosin from blocking the actin filament

(4) the myosin heads attach to the actin filament by the ____ molecules attached to their heads

(5) the myosin ____ changes position and the actin filaments slide past, the ADP is released

(6) an ____ molecule fixes to the myosin head and causes it to detach from the acin

(7) calcium ions activate the ____ and hydrolysis of the ATP allows the myosin head to be cocked again

when the muscles are relaxed, calcium ions are actively transported back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum and ____ blocks the filament again

____ is a reserve supply of phosphate available immediately to form ATP

the store is replenished using phosphate from ____ when the muscle is relaxed

necessary to have the store as a method of rapidly generating ATP ____ when ATP demand exceeds oxygen availability

____ muscle fibres contract more slowly, adapted to endurance work, adapted for aerobic respiration

(1) large store of ____ (oxygen storage molecule) which gives them a red colour

(2) good blood supply to deliver oxygen and glucose and numerous ____ to produce ATP

____ muscle fibres contract more rapidly and powerfully, adapted to intense exercise

(1) thicker and more numerous ____ filaments

(2) high concentration of enzymes involved in ____ respiration

(3) large stores of glycogen and ____

the maintenance of a stable internal environment

necessary to maintain pH and temperature to allow for normal ____ function

necessary to maintain blood water potential (so also ____ concentration) to prevent bursting or shrinking of cells

____ feedback mechanisms in both directions give a greater degree of control

____ is produced in times of excitement or stress

(1) binds to a transmembrane protein receptor within the cell surface membrane of a ____ cell

(2) changes the shape of a protein on the inside of the membrane and activates ____

(3) this converts ATP to ____

(4) this acts as a secondary messenger that activates a ____ by changing its shape

(5) this catalyses conversion of glycogen to ____

conversion of glucose into glycogen

breakdown of glycogen to glucose

production of glucose from sources other than carbohydrate

when insulin is released, it causes (1) activation of enzymes involved in glycogenesis

(2) ____ containing glucose transport carrier proteins fuse with the cell surface membrane to increase glucose absorption

(3) a change in the ____ structure of glucose carrier proteins causing them to open

lowers blood glucose concentration by (1) increasing rate of absorption of ____ into the cells

(2) increasing rates of cellular respiration, glycogenesis, and conversion of glucose into ____

when ____ is released it binds to receptors on liver cells and activates enzymes involved in glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis

diabetes where the body cannot produce insulin due to an autoimmune attack on the beta-cells of the islets of Langerhans

controlled by injections of ____ and usually begins in childhood

diabetes where glycoprotein receptors lose responsiveness to insulin or there is an inadequate supply of insulin from the pancreas

usually controlled by regulating ____ intake but may be supplemented by insulin injections or drugs that slow rate of glucose absorption

incidence of type II diabetes is ____ so responses of public bodies are important in determining health outcomes

e.g. promote healthy eating and physical activity, ask government to improve laws around ____ labelling

food industry sometimes reformulate products to reduce sugar/salt/fat content but also need to make ____ so promote unhealthy foods still

control of water potential of the blood

functional unit of the kidney

the closed end at the start of the nephron, cup-shaped

mass of blood capillaries surrounded by the Bowman's capsule

a series of loops surrounded by blood capillaries. its walls are made of epithelial cells which have microvilli, connects Bowman's capsule to the loop of Henle

a long, hairpin loop that extends from the cortex into the medulla of the kidney and back again. surrounded by blood capillaries

a second series of loops surrounded by blood capillaries

a tube into which a number of distal convoluted tubules from a number of nephrons empty

(1) blood enters the kidney through the ____ artery

this branches to give the ____ which each enter a Bowman's capsule

____ of the afferent arteriole is greater than ____ of the efferent arteriole, causing a buildup of hydrostatic pressure in the glomerulus

water, glucose and mineral ions are squeezed out of the capillary and form the ____

the glomerular ____ prevents large proteins entering the filtrate

the ____ that make up the renal capsule have gaps between them for filtrate to pass through

the ____ of the glomerular capillaries also has gaps

the ____ are adapted by: microvilli for a large surface area, many mitochondria to provide ATP for active transport

water and ____ are reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted tubule (____ by cotransport with sodium ions)

the loop of Henle acts as a ____ multiplier to absorb water

(1) sodium ions are actively transported out of the water-impermeable ____ limb

(2) this creates a low water potential in the ____ region between the limbs

(3) water passes out of the permeable ____ limb by osmosis into the interstitial space and into blood capillaries

(4) sodium ions diffuse and are actively transported out all the way up the ascending limb to maintain a ____ gradient

the ____ makes final adjustments to the water and ions that are reabsorbed

____ hormone alters permeability of the distal convoluted tubule to water

it is released by the ____ gland and more ADH leads to more water being reabsorbed

the genetic constitution of an organism

the expression of this genetic constitution and its interaction with the environment

genes located on sex chromosomes

multiple genes located on the same autosome

where one gene influences the expression of another gene. can be dominant or recessive

two different alleles are both fully and equally expressed in an individual's phenotype

monohybrid and ____ crosses can be constructed to interpret the results of a genetic cross

a group of organisms of the same species occupying a particular space at a particular time that can potentially interbreed

all the alleles of all the genes of all the individuals in a population at a given time

the number of times an allele occurs within the gene pool

____ equations can be used to calculate allelic frequencies in a population. assumptions:

(1) no ____

(2) the population is ____ (no flow of alleles in or out)

(3) there is no ____ so all alleles equally likely to be passed on

(4) population is ____

(5) mating is ____

p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = ____ and p + q = ____

natural selection causes changes in ____ frequency if the new mutation provides a benefit to the phenotype

eliminates extremes of the phenotypic range within a population and with it the capacity for evolutionary change

a change in conditions changes the optimum value for survival in the normal distribution of a phenotype

extreme phenotypes are favoured at the expense of intermediates

____ separation of two populations can result in accumulation of differences in their gene pools that prevent successful breeding

____ speciation: two populations are geographically isolated

____ speciation: two populations are in the same area but are reproductively separated (e.g. fertile at different times of year)

change in allele frequencies within a population from one generation to the next, driven by chance

the populations of different species in an area

a community and the non-living components of its environment

the specific functional role and space an organism occupies within an ecosystem

an ecosystem supports a certain size of population of a species (the ____)

population size varies due to inter and intraspecific ____ and the effects of abiotic factors

mark-release recapture assumptions: (1) proportion of ____ to un____ individuals does not change between samples

(2) the marked individuals have sufficient time to distribute evenly within the ____

(3) no immigration, emigration, births or ____

(4) the method of ____ing does not harm the individual, and is not lost or rubbed off

succession: (1) the ____ species colonises an environment (e.g. lichens)

(2) ____ of the base rock by the pioneer species produces sand or soil

(3) these species die, decompose, and release sufficient nutrients to support a ____ of small plants

(4) continued erosion of the rock builds up soil, which is contributed to by the ____ matter from dead plants

this holds ____ which makes it easier for other plants to grow

each generation of species make it less ____ for the organisms that follow

(5) the new plants also provide more ____ sources and ____ webs develop

(6) a ____ community forms, with trees, animals, other plants. there is high biodiversity and it is stable over time

____ of habitats frequently involves management of succession

you need to manage conflict between human needs and conservation to maintain ____ of natural resources

cells can control their metabolic activities by regulating ____ and translation of their genome

mutation that adds a base

mutation that removes a base

mutation that changes one base for another

mutation that flips a section around 180 degrees

mutation that duplicates a section

mutation where a segment of chromosome breaks off and attaches to a non-homologous chromosome or another part of the same chromosome

mutations are ____ but frequency is increased by mutagenic agents

a ____ shift changes all codons downstream from the mutation

____ cells can divide and produce any type of body cell, found in early mammalian embryos

____ cells can form all body cell types but placenta, found in embryos

multi____ and uni____ cells are found in mature mammals and can divide to form a limited number of cell types

unipotent cells are derived from ____ cells and can only differentiate into one type of cell

e.g. ____ which are heart muscle cells that can divide to produce new heart tissue and repair damaged heart muscle

____ can be produced from adult somatic cells using transcription factors

pluripotent ____ treatments pros: alleviate human suffering, use embryos from fertility treatments that would otherwise be destroyed, no harm to a person

cons: undermines respect for human life, move towards reproductive ____

stem cells obtained from adult ____ have restricted medical benefits

____ is a steroid hormone that helps initiate transcription

for transcription to begin, a ____ must bind to a promoter region so the DNA can be transcribed

(1) oestrogen is ____ so diffuses through the phospholipid bilayer

(2) in the cytoplasm, binds to a receptor molecule on the transcriptional factor with a ____ shape

(3) changes the shape of the ____ binding site on the transcriptional factor and allows it to bind to ____

(4) the complex now enters the nucleus through a nuclear pore and binds to the ____ region on the gene and stimulates transcription

heritable changes in gene function without changes to the DNA base sequence

the ____ determines the shape of the DNA-histone complex

the epigenome responds to environmental changes to vary which ____ are silenced and which are not

in early development, ____ by the mother shapes the epigenome. after birth, environmental factors affect it instead

when the association of DNA with ____ is weak DNA is more accessible by transcriptional factors

____ of histones decreases the positive charge of histones and decreases attraction to DNA

____ of the cytosine bases prevents binding of transcriptional factors

epigenetic treatments can be used to treat cancers, e.g. decreasing ____ of tumour suppressor genes

____ is breaking down mRNA before translation

siRNA

(1) enzyme cuts double stranded ____ into smaller sections of siRNA

(2) one of the two siRNA strands combines with an ____

(3) the siRNA pairs its bases to the complementary ones on the ____

(4) the enzyme cuts the mRNA into smaller pieces and prevens ____

malignant vs benign tumours: both can grow very ____

benign have a normal cell ____ whereas malignant have a larger and darker ____ due to an abundance of DNA

benign tumours often have ____ cells but in malignant ones cells become un____

malignant tumours ____ and form secondary tumours but benign ones do not because they produce adhesion molecules

benign tumours are compacted by a capsule of dense ____ but malignant ones are not

____ tumours are less likely to be life-threatening unless they disrupt function of a vital organ

benign tumours tend to have localised effects whereas malignant ones have ____ effects

benign tumours can usually be removed by surgery, malignant tumours usually require radio____ and/or chemo____ as well

____ tumours reoccur after treatment more frequently

cancer cells are derived from a single mutant cell whose mutation causes uncontrolled ____

a further ____ in descendent cells can cause subsequent cells to have abnormal growth or appearance

mutations of proto-oncogenes, which stimulate a cell to divide when growth factors attach to a protein receptor on its cell-membrane surface

these mutations cause the ____ to be permanently switched on for one of two reasons:

(1) the receptor protein on the cell surface membrane is permanently activated even in the absence of ____

(2) the oncogene may code for a growth factor that is then produced in excessive amounts, stimulating excessive ____

____ slow down cell division, repair mistakes in DNA, tell a cell when to die

cell death

____ of a tumour suppressor gene can occur to it being switched off

probability of developing breast cancer increases after the ____ because the fat cells of the breast start producing oestrogen

this is because oestrogen promotes transcription and can cause proto-oncogenes in breast tissue to develop into ____

genetic and ____ factors can increase cancer risk

determining the genome of simpler organisms allows the ____ of the organism to be determined

this can be applied in ____ production by identification of specific antigens

this is not possible in more complex organisms due to the presence of ____

____ methods are continuously updated and have become automated

____ DNA technology involves the transfer of fragments of DNA from one organism or species to another

the genetic code is universal so transferred DNA is translated within cells of the recipient ____ organism

process: (1) DNA fragment is ____

(2) DNA fragment is inserted into a ____

(3) ____ of the DNA into host cells

(4) identification of the host cells that have taken up the gene by use of gene ____

(5) ____ of the successful host cells

____ of DNA can be produced by one of three methods:

(1) conversion of mRNA to complementary DNA (cDNA) using ____

(2) using ____ enzymes to cut out a fragment containing the desired gene from DNA

(3) using a ____ to assemble the gene from oligonucleotides

a series of small, overlapping single strands of nucleotides

____ gene cloning uses vectors to transfer fragments to a host cell

restriction endonucleases cut the DNA and target gene at ____

this gives complementary ____ which means the DNA can incorporate the gene

when the sticky ends have paired up, ____ binds the phosphate-sugar frameworks of the two sections

before insertion, a promoter region is added for ____ to bind at and a terminator region for ____ to detach at

the fragments are mixed with ____ cut with the same restriction endonuclease

the plasmids are mixed with the cells in a medium containing ____ and temperature changes to increase membrane permeability

to identify which cells have take up a plasmid, use ____ as the cells with the resistant gene from the plasmid will survive

then from these cells, identify if the gene has been taken up using another ____ gene, e.g. one that is fluorescent

____ cloning uses the polymerase chain reaction

PCR requires: the DNA fragment, ____, primers, nucleotides, and a thermocycler

short sequences of nucleotides that have a set of bases complementary to those at one end of each of the two DNA fragments

a computer controlled machine that varies temperatures precisely over a period of time

PCR: (1) temperature increased to ____C to break hydrogen bonds between the strands

(2) ____ of the primers

the mixture is cooled to ____C causing the primers to join to their complementary bases at the end of the DNA fragment

these primers allow ____ to attach and prevent the two strands from rejoining

(3) temperature increased to ____C and the DNA polymerase synthesises the new DNA strand from the nucleotides

the cycle is repeated and number of strands is ____ every time

____ is more rapid and does not require living cells

____ is precise, more accurate, low risk of contamination, useful for gene therapy, useful to produce transgenic bacteria that produce gene products

____ DNA technology benefits: treats disease, crops engineered to prevent disease or have environmental advantages, bacteria cloned to break down oil slicks

risks: can't predict ____ consequences of releasing GM organisms, antibiotic resistance marker could spread to harmful bacteria, eugenics concerns

short, single-stranded lengths of DNA that have some sort of label attached to make it easily identifiable

where a section of DNA or RNA is combined with a single-stranded section of DNA which has complementary bases

you can identify an ____ of a gene with a probe in the following way:

(1) determine the allele ____ sequence using sequencing or genetic libraries

(2) make copies of the probe using the ____

(3) heat the ____ stranded DNA to separate the strands

(4) mix the strands with the probe so the probe binds to the DNA - ____

(5) wash to remove unattached probes then identify if a probe has bound using a ____ or fluorescent marker

this can be used to screen patients for heritable conditions, drug responses, and health risks - allows for ____ medicine

a form of social work relating to heritable diseases and likelihood/manageability of it in offspring

VNTRs

VNTRs are non-____ base sequences with lengths unique to everyone. the more similar they are, the more closely related two individuals are

making of a genetic ____: (1) extract the DNA from a sample and increase quantity using PCR

(2) cut the DNA into fragments using ____

(3) separate the fragments by size by ____

(4) immerse the gel in ____ to separate the strands

(5) mix with different radioactively marked probes complementary to ____

(6) develop by placing on ____ film

uses of DNA fingerprinting include: (1) resolving questions of ____

all bands on an individual's ____ must correspond to one of the parents

(2) ____ science: comparing a DNA sample from a crime scene to one taken from a suspect

(3) ____ diagnosis to investigate if someone has a genetic disease vulnerability

(4) plant and animal breeding, for example to prevent undesirable ____