YEAR TWO: A-Level Chemistry OCR-B

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Last updated: May 18, 2026
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nitrogen molecules are unreactive due to the strong ____ which must be broken before it can react
triple bond
ammonia has a ____ of electrons on the nitrogen
lone pair
ammonia can act as a base because it can form a ____ covalent bond with a hydrogen ion giving the ammonium ion
dative
nitrogen oxide is a ____ gas that turns to brown nitrogen dioxide in air
colourless
it comes from combustion processes, thunderstorms, and formation in the soil by ____
denitrifying bacteria
dinitrogen oxide is a colourless gas formed in the soil by ____
denitrifying bacteria
nitrogen dioxide is a brown gas formed by ____ of nitrogen oxide in the atmosphere
oxidation
when oxygen content is low, ____ bacteria reduce nitrate (V) ions to gaseous nitrogen
anaerobic
____- (aq) => NO2- (aq) => NO (g) => N2O (g) => N2 (g)
NO3
in nitrate (____) ions, one oxygen is bonded with a single bond and one with a double bond and there is a lone pair on the nitrogen
III
in nitrate (____) the nitrogen has also used the lone pair to form a dative covalent bond to an oxygen atom
V
nitrite and nitrate are both water soluble and are made through oxidation of ____ ions by aerobic bacteria in soil
ammonium
this is called ____ is carried out by the bacteria to obtain respiratory energy
nitrification
NH4+ (aq) + 1.5O2 (g) => ____- (aq) + 2H+ (aq) + H2O(l)
NO2
NO2- (aq) + 0.5O2 (g) => ____- (aq)
NO3
test for nitrate (V) ions: heat with sodium hydroxide and ____, ammonia gas will be evolved
Devarda's alloy
Devarda's alloy contains copper, ____ and zinc (____ is the reducing agent)
aluminium
3NO3- + 8Al + 5OH- => 3____ + 8[Al(OH)4]-
NH3
ammonia turns damp red litmus paper ____ and has a characteristic sharp choking smell
blue
to test for ammonium ions, heat gently with sodium hydroxide solution and ____ gas will be evolved
ammonia
NH4+ (aq) + OH- (aq) => NH3 (g) + ____ (l)
H2O
____ of reaction is measured as a change in property over time, e.g. volume of gas evolved, mass change, pH measurement, colorimetry, titration
rate
rate = k[A]^m[B]^m where k is the ____
rate constant
m and n are the powers to which the ____ need to be raised
concentrations
if i double concentration of reactant, and rate doubled, ____ = 1. if i double it and rate quadruples, ____ = 2
order of reaction
these are called order of reaction with ____ to A and B
respect
overall order of reaction = ____ + n
m
____ equation: k = Ae^(Ea/RT) or lnK = lnA - (Ea/RT)
Arrhenius
A is the ____ which is a representation of collision frequency and orientation of moelcules
frequency factor
to find order of reaction for a reactant you must make sure the only thing changing is the ____ of that reactant
concentration
e.g. by using a large ____ of a reactant so concentration does not significantly change
excess
a ____ shows how the concentration of a reactant or product changes over the course of a reaction
progress curve
finding the ____ for different concentrations lets you work out order of reaction
initial rate
e.g. by measuring the ____ time to produce a small, fixed amount of one of the products
reaction
you can use the progress curve to find ____ of a reaction - if ____ is constant, the reaction is first order
half life
the ____ is the slowest step in a reaction mechanism
rate determining step
the power of each substance in the rate equation corresponds to number of ____ of each substance in the rate determining step
molecules
some steps in a reaction are slower than others due to a larger ____
activation enthalpy
the ____ for a reaction involving two steps will have two activation energies
enthalpy profile
usually the ____ are at higher energy than the reactants and products because they have unusual structures or bonding
intermediates
chemical processes have various costs, e.g. the ____ to make the feedstock
raw materials
these usually have to be prepared or treated to ____ them and ensure they are present in the right proportions
purify
feedstock needs to be in an easy-to-handle form. transferring gases and liquids is done by ____
pipeline
cost of ____ may be high so number of pumps and length of piping is kept to a minimum
piping
____ are expensive to handle so are sometimes melted or made into a slurry to reduce transportation costs
solids
product: ____. feedstock: methane, air, water. raw materials: natural gas, air, water
ammonia
product: ____. feedstock: sulfur, air, water. raw materials: natural gas/oil (desulfurisation yields the sulfur), air, water
sulfuric acid
product: ____. feedstock: ammonia, air, water. raw materials: natural gas.oil, air
nitric acid
product: ____. feedstock: methanol, carbon monoxide, water. raw materials: coal/natural gas, air, water
ethanoic acid
natural gas is mostly methane but also contains ethane, propane and butane which are ____ cracked to produce ethene and propene
steam
distillation of ____ produces various fractions such as LPG, naphtha, and gas oil
crude oil
LPG
liquefied petroleum gas
LPG is steam cracked to form ____ and propene
ethene
naptha is steam cracked or can be reformed into ____ alkanes, cycloalkanes and aromatic hydrocarbons for high grade petrol
branched chain
gas oil is ____ cracked to ethene, propene and high grade petrol
catalytically
a second product that also has a commercial benefit
coproduct
ratio of product: coproduct is fixed and some reaction routes would be ____ if the coproduct could not be used
unprofitable
unwanted products produced from reactions
byproduct
a feedstock might: form one useful product, form two useful products, undergo a ____ and form byproducts, not react at all
side reaction
sales of product have to offset initial costs like research and development, ____ design and construction, and initial production
plant
costs incurred by the company irrespective of how much product is produced (e.g. labour costs, land rental, sales expenses, depreciation of the plant value)
fixed costs
costs that relate to the unit of production (e.g. raw materials, costs of effluent treatment and disposal, distributing the product)
variable costs
____ of a chemical process affects total costs
efficiency
necessary to balance rate, position of ____ and costs to get the greatest yield for money
equilibrium
you can reduce cost with use of an effective ____, recycling unreacted feedstock and selling coproduct
catalyst
chemical reactions can conserve ____ energy by lagging pipes (insulating them) and using a heat exchanger
thermal
heat exchanger: allows exothermic parts of the process to supply energy to ____ parts
endothermic
water and ____ can be used to transfer energy within a chemical plant - ____ produced in one process can be used in a different part of the plant
steam
____ include: flammable gases, acidic gases, toxic emissions, all of which must be managed and are legislated
hazards
manufacture also provides ____ such as biofuels, colorants, foodstuffs, paints, fertilisers, etc
benefits
molecule with two carboxyl groups has suffix ____ acid
dioic acid
carboxylic acids, phenols and alcohols form salts with metals in a ____ reaction
redox
to improve euilibrium ____ of esterification of an alcohol with a given amount of carboxylic acid, add excess alcohol or distill water as it is produced
yield
esters have ____ or fruity smells
floral
____ polymerisation: monomers react to give a larger chain polymer and a small stable molecule (usually water or HCl)
condensation
the -OH group in phenol is less ____ than in alcohol so does not esterify with carboxylic acids
reactive
amine structure resembles ____ in which alkyl groups replace one, two or three of the hydrogen atoms
ammonia
primary amine: one ____ group. secondary: two. tertiary: three
alkyl
amines with low molecular masses are gases or ____ liquids
volatile
the volatile amines have strong smells of ____
rotting fish
amines can form ____ bonds with water and become less soluble as the carbon chain gets longer and the amine group has less effect
hydrogen
solutions of amines are alkaline because they can be protonated by water, forming an ____ ion and hydroxide ion
alkylammonium
amines react with ____ to completion and the solution loses its strong smell
acids
primary ____ are derivatives of carboxylic acids made by replacing the -OH group with -NH2
amides
acyl ____ + ammonia -> primary amide + hydrochloric acid
chloride
acyl chloride + ____ -> secondary amide + hydrochloric acid
amine
diamines and dicarboxylic acids can be used to make a polymer (called polyamide or nylon) chain linked by ____ groups
amide
acyl chlorides react with alcohols to form ____
esters
esters and amides can be hydrolysed by addition of a ____ concentrated acid or alkali
moderately
____ + water + H+ => carboxylic acid + ammonium
primary amide
____ + water + H+ => carboxylic acid + amine salt
secondary amide
____ + water + OH- => carboxylate salt + ammonia
primary amide
____ + water + OH- => carboxylate salt + amine
secondary amide
____ contain at least one amino group and one carboxylic acid group
amino acids
compounds with 2 functional groups
bifunctional
ions with both negatively and positively charged groups
zwitterions
amino acids form zwitterions because the -COOH can donate a ____ to the -NH2
proton/H+
amino acids are water-soluble and usually ____ in solution
neutral
amino acids can ____ against pH changes due to the zwitterions so amino acids exist in 3 different ionic forms depending on pH of the solution
buffer
____ isomerism arises because the four single bonds around a carbon atom are arranged tetrahedrally
optical
non-superimposable mirror images
enantiomers/optical isomers
a carbon atom bonded to four different groups
chiral centre
molecules non-superimposable on their mirror images are ____
chiral
enantiomers share most chemical and physical properties but may behave differently in the presence of other ____ molecules and sometimes smell or taste different
chiral
a ____ link forms when 2 amino acids react to form a secondary amide group
peptide
amino aid which has lost the elements of water in forming a peptide
residue
there are ____ amino acids. you abbreviate them to their first three letters
20
you can ____ proteins by heating with moderately concentrated acid or alkali (catalysed by enzymes instead in living systems)
hydrolyse
____ can be used to identify the individual amino acids present in a peptide
paper chromatography
the peptide is hydrolysed under ____ and the product compared to known samples of pure amino acids using chromatography
reflux
sequence of amino acids, determines ultimate structure and thus function
primary structure
folding of the primary structure due to hydrogen bonding between the NN and C=O groups
secondary structure
further folding due to IDID bonds, hydrogen bonds between polar side chains, ionic bonds, and disulfide links
tertiary structure
____ proteins are fibrous and consist mainly of helices
structural
____ proteins are globular and have both sheets and helices
globular
where on the enzyme the substrate binds
active site
the bonds between enzyme and ____ are weak, and cause bonds within the ____ to be deformed or weaken
substrate
the reaction is ____ order with respect to the enzyme at low substrate concentrations and first order at high ones
zero
prevent substrates binding by binding to the active site and occupying it
inhibitors
hydrogen and IDID bonds are easily broken by ____ changes
temperature
pH changes alter the shape of the active site by interfering with the ____ groups
ionisable
the part of a medicine's molecule that gives a medicine its effect
pharmacophore
these can be modified by changing ____ to make the medicine more effective or reduce side effects
functional groups
they interact with receptor sites by forming weak interactions and can fit into receptor sites with the correct size, shape and ____
orientation
____ groups are H2PO4-
phosphate
DNA monomer: phosphate, sugar, nitrogenous base adenine, thymine, guanine or cytosine
nucleotide
deoxyribose is the sugar in DNA and ____ in RNA
ribose
____ pairs with thymine/uracil and forms 2 hydrogen bonds
adenine
____ pairs with guanine and forms 3 hydrogen bonds
cytosine
one strand can synthesise a ____ copy of itself prior to cell division
complementary
one strand can make a complementary copy of mRNA by ____
transcription
transcription: (1) a section of the DNA unzips by breaking the ____ bonds between strands
hydrogen
(2) RNA ____ pair to complementary bases and are joined using enzymes
nucleotides
(3) the double ____ reforms and the mRNA passes out of the nucleus
helix
each three bases, or ____, code for an amino acids
codons
the DNA code is ____ as some codons code for the same amino acid
degenerate
the start codon is ____ and the amino acid methionine is always at the start of the protein sequence (sometimes hydrolysed off later)
AUG
there are also three ____ (UAA, UGA, UAG) that end the synthesis
stop codons
translation: (1) mRNA attaches to the ____
ribosome
(2) tRNA with an attached amino acid binds to the mRNA by its complementary ____
anticodon
(3) amino acids held close together form ____
peptide links
a DNA segment that codes for a particular protein
gene
we sometimes use ____ mass spectrometry for molecules with similar Mr (accurate to 4dp)
high resolution
carbon-13 NMR and proton NMR are methods of nuclear magnetic resonance to determine number of carbon and hydrogen ____ and their properties
environments
JUST DO PRACTICE QUESTIONS ON USING INFRARED, MASS SPECTRA, C-13 AND H NMR IM NOT WRITING ALLAT IN HERE (type OK)
ok
the 4s subshell is usually filled before the 3d subshell except in ____ and copper
chromium
____ has an electron in each 3d sub shell and an electron in the 4s sub shell
chromium
____ has a full 3d sub shell and one electron in the 4s sub shell
copper
when transition metals form cations, they lose the ____ electrons first
4s
____ and scandium are not transition metals because their ions do not have incomplete 3d orbitals
zinc
iron content can be analysed using redox titration as iron (II) can be oxidised to iron (II) by ____ (VII) in solution
potassium manganate
the end point is where the first permanent ____ colour is observed because MnO4- is in excess
pink
in heterogeneous catalysis, transition metals can use the 3d and 4s electrons of atoms on the metal surface to form weak bonds to reactants - ____
chemisorption
in ____ catalysis, the transition metal usually forms an intermediate compound with 1+ reactants that breaks down to form the products
homogeneous
transition metals are particularly effective catalysts in redox reactions because they can move between ____ states
oxidation
Cu(OH)2 will give a a deep blue-purple solution on addition of excess ____ solution
ammonia
iron (II) hydroxide is a gelatinous green precipitate, iron (III) hydroxide gelatinous orange, neither form ____ with ammonia
complexes
____ surrounding a metal ion in solution causes d-orbital splitting
ligands
this means the difference between the two levels is such that the light absorbed falls in the ____ spectrum
visible
the ____ colour to the one absorbed will be seen
complementary
common ____ ligands are chloride, ammonia, cyanide and hydroxide
monodentate
colour of a transition metal ____ depends on number of d-electrons, arrangement of ligands, and the nature of the ligand
complex
in equations, charge, number of atoms and ____ state must all be balanced
oxidation
____ use redox reactions to generate electricity
electrochemical cells
electrical charge is measured in ____ and current is a measure of charge per second (measured in amperes)
coulombs
you can arrange for two half-reactions to occur simultaneously with ____ flowing through an external wire from one to the other
electrons
a ____ is used to determine potential difference between the half cells
high resistance voltmeter
to determine Ecell, measure the ____ potential difference between the terminals of the cell
positive
a ____ is used to balance the charges of the solutions without them mixing
salt bridge
a metal/metal ion half cell will use a ____ mol dm^-3 solution of ions and a metal electrode
1
an ion/other ion half cell will use a solution containing both ions and an inert ____ electrode
platinum
when two-half cells are placed together, the one with the more ____ potential will become the positive terminal of the cell
positive
a more positive Ecell indicates a greater tendency for ____
reduction
the ____ is the reference half-cell and is Ecell is defined as 0.0V
standard hydrogen half cell
this comprises of a 1 mol dm^-3 acid solution, ____ electrode, glass tube covering the electrode with holes to allow gas to escape, and hydrogen entering the tube at the top
platinum
the ____ of a half cell is the potential difference between the half cell and a standard hydrogen half cell
standard electrode potential
the ____ series is (from most negative to most positive standard electrode potential) is magnesium, zinc, hydrogen, copper, silver
electrochemical series
you can use electrode potentials to make predictions about the ____ of redox reactions under certain conditions
feasibility
a reaction may be feasible at standard conditions but slow if ____ is high
activation enthalpy
formation of iron (III) oxide by an electrochemical process
rusting
half reactions: (1) Fe2+ (aq) + 2e- <=> ____ (s)
Fe
(2) 0.5O2 (g) + H2O (l) + 2e- <=> 2____- (aq)
OH
oxygen is reduced to hydroxide ions and iron is oxidised to iron (II) ions because the oxygen/hydroxide half-cell has a more ____ electrode potential
positive
oxygen is reduced to hydroxide ions at the edges of the water droplet where oxygen ____ is high
concentration
the electrons needed for this come from the ____ of iron at the centre, where concentration of dissolved oxygen is low
oxidation
____ forms in a series of secondary processes within the solution as the Fe2+ ions and OH- ions diffuse away from the metal surface
rust
(1) Fe2+ (aq) + 2OH- (aq) => Fe(OH)2 (s) forms iron (II) ____
hydroxide
(2) Fe(OH)2 (s) => Fe2O3 • xH2O in the presence of dissolved ____
oxygen
the simplest way to protect steel from rust is with a ____ between the metal and atmosphere e.g. oil, grease, paint
barrier
any metal with a more negative Ecell than iron can be used as a ____ metal because it shifts the position of equilibrium to stop iron ions forming
sacrificial
e.g. ____ steel: covered with a layer of zinc - as long as this remains undamaged a protective metal oxide layer will form and protect the lower layer
galvanised
____ oxidation of a metal occurs at an anode site so any technique that makes a metal a cathode will prevent it from corrosion
destructive
another method of making it a cathode is by externally supplying ____ to it
electrons
the ____ terminal of a dc supply is connected to the metal - electrons flow from anode to cathode so this makes the metal a cathode
negative
the anode is usually an ____ electrode which is corrosion resistant
inert
rather than the anode, ____ is oxidised: 2H2O (l) => O2(g) + 4H+ (aq) + 4e-
water
a ____ consists of a central metal ion surrounded by ligands
complex
anions or neutral molecules with at least one lone pair of electrons
ligands
if a complex is charged, it is called a ____
complex ion
the overall ____ of a complex is the sum of the ____ on the metal ion and the charges on the ligands
charge
the charges on a complex ion are ____ over the whole ion
delocalised
ligands form a dative covalent bond (or ____ bond) with the metal, making the ligands Lewis bases
coordinate
number of bonds from the central ion to the ligands (usually 6 or 4)
coordination number
complexes with coordination number 6 are usually ____
octahedral
complexes with coordination number 4 are usually ____
tetrahedral
the ethanedioate is ____ because it can form two bonds with a metal ion
bidentate
ethanedioate structure: two connected -COO- groups, each O- has a ____ it uses to form the coordinate bond
lone pair
ligand ____ reactions can occur to replace one ligand with another
substitution
e.g. if you add concentrated ____ acid to a [Cu(H2O)6]2+ complex a [CuCl4]2- complex will form
hydrochloric
substitution occurs if the new complex is more ____ than the last
stable
iron 2+ and iron 3+ form complexes with water with coordination number ____
6
Cu 2+ forms complexes with water with coordination number 6 and complexes with ammonia and chloride with coordination number ____
4
the energy change when one mole of an ionic compound's crystal lattice forms from its constituent gaseous ions under standard conditions
lattice enthalpy
these are large ____ quantities that depend on size and charge of the ion
negative
to break down a lattice therefore a lot of energy is required, which tends to stop substances ____ unless the energy is paid back later
dissolving
lattice enthalpies become more negative when: ionic charges ____ and radii decrease
increase
many ionic substances form aqueous solutions because the charged ions can interact with the ____ on the water
dipoles
ions in solution are ____ either strongly or weakly depending on charge density
hydrated
the enthalpy change for the formation of an aqueous solution of ions from one mole of gaseous ions
enthalpy change of hydration
for this you can assume a very ____ solution where ion-ion interactions are negligible
dilute
general term for enthalpy change when dissolving in solvents other than water
enthalpy change of solvation
the difference between the enthalpy changes of hydration of the anion and cation and the lattice enthalpy gives this
enthalpy change of solution
an ____ cycle will represent this
enthalpy
ionic solids are not soluble in ____ solvents like hexane because the interactions between ions and solvent is weak
non polar
hot objects emit ____ - the hotter the object, the higher the energy
electromagnetic radiation
the Earth radiates mainly ____ radiation
infrared
the radiation from the Sun that reaches the atmosphere is mainly in the visible and ____ regions
ultraviolet/UV
part of this energy is ____ by the Earth and atmosphere, some reflected back into space
absorbed
average ____ of the Earth is constant when it radiates energy as fast as it absorbs it but this balance can be disturbed by changes to the quantities of atmospheric gases
temperature
carbon dioxide and methane are examples of ____ gases
greenhouse
greenhouse gases absorb some of the ____ radiation emitted by the Earth
infrared
(1) absorption of infrared increases ____ energy
vibrational
(2) this is transferred to other molecules in the air by ____ which increases their kinetic energy and the temperature of the air
collisions
(3) some infrared is re-emitted back towards Earth, some out towards space, and the overall effect is to trap some ____ that otherwise would have been lost
radiation
burning of ____ has led to increasing levels of greenhouse gases
fossil fuels
____ is the most abundant greenhouse gas but it only absorbs certain wavelengths of infrared radiation
water vapour
the wavelengths of infrared that water vapour doesn't absorb
IR window
carbon dioxide absorbs in the IR window so increased CO2 levels mean more radiation is being ____ across a greater range of wavelengths
absorbed
an acid and its deprotonated form are called a ____ acid-base pair because the ____ base can accept a proton and become the acid again
conjugate
pH = -log[ ____ ]
hydrogen ions/H+
strong acids ____ completely but weak acids do not
dissociate
to find pH of a weak acid, you must find Ka, the ____
acid dissociation constant
pKa = -log[ ____ ]
Ka
calculating pH of a strong alkali requires using ____ (the ionisation product of water)
Kw
____ = [H+][OH-]
Kw
____ resist changes in pH on additional of small quantities of acid or alkali
buffers
buffers are usually made from a weak acid or base and one of its ____
salts
you make two assumptions: (1) all the A- ions come from the ____ because the weak acid supplies very few A- ions
salt
(2) almost all the HA put in the ____ remain unchanged
buffer
Ka = [H+] [salt] / [ ____ ] for buffers
acid
a substance that dissolves only slightly in solvent
sparingly soluble
a sparingly soluble ionic solid in contact with a ____ solution of its ions is an example of a chemical equilibrium
saturated
solubility product ____ = [concentration of ion]^moles of ion x [concentration of other ion]^moles of other ion
Ksp
you can use Ksp to predict if a ____ will form: if the calculated value is greater than Ksp, the substance will precipitate out
precipitate
Ksp varies with ____
temperature
some spontaneous reactions are ____
endothermic
a measure of the number of ways that molecules and their associated energy can be arranged
entropy
units of entropy are ____ per Kelvin per mole
joules
for a reaction to be feasible, total entropy change to the system and surroundings must be greater than ____
0/zero
total ____ change = ____ change of the system - (enthalpy change/temperature)
entropy
the requirement for equilibrium is that total entropy change equals ____
zero/0
changes where total entropy change > 0 are feasible but may not be ____ if they have a large Ea
spontaneous
some organic molecules consist of a system of alternating single and double bonds called a ____ system
conjugated
the electrons in the p orbitals making up the pi bonds become ____ over all the atoms in the system
delocalised
these systems can include ____ from correctly oriented oxygen and nitrogen atoms
lone pairs
a ____ ring is an example of a delocalised system
benzene
delocalised systems with 5 pi bonds in the system are likely to absorb light in the ____ range and appear coloured
visible
the more electrons are delocalised, the smaller the energy gap, and the ____ the wavelengths of light absorbed
longer
the benzene ring is a regular, ____ hexagon with bond angles 120
planar
the p orbital electrons form a delocalised charge cloud above and below the ____ of the ring which increases stability
plane
the ____ model showed alternating single and double bonds but was disproved by thermochemical data
Kekulé
enthalpy of hydrogenation is less ____ than predicted (should be 3x cyclohexene)
exothermic
shows that the structure is more stable so less energy is ____ when it is hydrogenated
released
benzene reacts with ____ in an electrophilic substitution reaction
electrophiles
the benzene ring remains intact and a ____ ion is released
hydrogen
the reactions are relatively slow because the mechanism disrupts the conjugated system and a ____ is often required
catalyst
benzene reacts with liquid bromine in the presence of an ____ (III) bromide catalyst
iron
the electrophile is formed from Br2 and FeBr3 - produces ____+ and [FeBr4]-
Br
chlorination is similar except it uses an ____ (III) chloride catalyst
aluminium
these occur at room temperature but aluminium (III) chloride can only be used in ____ conditions
anhydrous
benzene + chloroethane + anhydrous aluminium chloride is a Friedel Crafts ____ and forms ethylbenzene + HCl
alkylation
benzene + ethanoyl chloride + anhydrous aluminium chloride is a Friedel Crafts ____ and forms phenylethanone + HCl
acylation
benzene reacts with a mixture of concentrated ____ acid and sulfuric acid (nitrating mixture)
nitric
if the temperature is kept below 55C the product is ____
nitrobenzene
the electrophile is the NO2+ ____
cation
HNO3 + 2H2SO4 -> NO2+ + 2HSO4- + H3O+ where the products are the ____
nitrating mixture
inserting nitro groups into a benzene ring that is part of a ____ will modify the wavelength of light absorbed
chromophore
the region within a molecule that absorbs visible light and is responsible for its colour
chromophore
heating benzene and concentrated sulfuric acid under ____ for several hours, benzenesulfonic acid is formed
reflux
the electrophile is SO3+ which carries a large partial ____ charge on the sulfur atom
positive
benzenesulfonic acid is a ____ acid and forms salts in alkaline solution
strong
sulfonation provides a way of forming more ____ derivatives of aromatic compounds
soluble
____ functional group is R1-N=N-R2
azo
azo compounds are formed from a reaction between a ____ and a coupling agent
diazonium salt
if the R groups are ____ groups then the azo compound is more stable than if they are alkyl groups
arene
this is because the -N=N- group is ____ by becoming part of the delocalised system involving the arene groups
stablises
this stability allows aromatic azo compounds to be used as ____
dyes
diazonium compounds contain the ____ group R-N+≡N
diazonium
diazonium salts are usually unstable because the diazonium group is easily lost, forming ____ gas
nitrogen
however, if the group is attached to a ____ ring, it is stable enough to be formed as an intermediate
benzene
these compounds are produced in solutions below ____ degrees C
5
(1) dissolve the aromatic amine in dilute ____
hydrochloric acid
(2) add a cold solution of sodium nitrate (III) formula: ____
NaNO2
this reaction is called ____
diazotisation
the reactant here is nitrous acid formula: ____ which reacts with the amine functional group
HNO2
in a ____ reaction, a diazonium compound acts as an electrophile and reacts with the benzene ring of a coupling agent
coupling
a compound containing a relatively reactive benzene ring, usually with a phenol or phenylamine
coupling agent
dyes with a negative charge when dissolved in water due to the presence of sulfonate groups
acid dyes
acid dyes are applied in acid conditions where ____ and protein fibres will have positive NH3+ groups
polyaide
using a metal ion to join dye to fabric by forming chelate complex ions
mordanting
fibre reactive dyes are formed by adding ____ groups to the dye molecule
reactive
these form ____ bonds with polymers that have OH or NH2 groups
covalent
if a dye is a linear molecule with several NH2 groups and the polymer has frequent OH groups the dye and fibre can ____ bond
hydrogen
if the dye is small and not very polar, and the polymer has no OH or NH groups, ____ bonds form
instantaneous dipole induced dipole
oils and fats are mostly esters of glycerol ( ____ ) with long chain carboxylic acids
propane 1,2,3-triol
glycerol has 3 alcohol groups so 3 carboxylic acids form ester links to form a ____
triester
the carboxylic (or ____) acids can be saturated or unsaturated
fatty
an oil or fat can be hydrolysed by heating with concentrated NaOH to give glycerol and the ____ salts of the acids
sodium
the free fatty acids are released from the sodium salts by adding a dilute ____ acid like HCl (aq)
mineral
gas-liquid chromatography uses (1) for mobile phase, an ____ carrier gas like nitrogen
unreactive
(2) for stationary phase, a small amount of liquid with a high boiling point held on a finely divided inert ____
porous support
the material is packed into a ____ which is coiled inside an oven
column
process: (1) the sample is injected into the ____ stream before it enters the column
gas
(2) the components of the mixture each have a different ____ for the stationary vs mobile phase
affinity
(3) compounds who more greatly favour the mobile phase emerge more quickly than those that ____ in the stationary phase
dissolve
the most ____ compounds usually emerge first
volatile
____ = [component in stationary phase] / [component in mobile phase]
partition coefficient
a detector on the ____ tube monitors the compounds coming out of the column
outlet
signals from the detector are plotted as a ____
chromatogram
the time a given compound is held in the column
retention time
a GLC instument must be ____ using samples of known compounds
calibrated
conditions such as temperature affect retention time so conditions must remain ____
constant
the area (or ____ if the peaks are very sharp) under each peak depends on the amount of compound present
height
aldehydes can be ____ but ketones cannot
oxidised
____ test: a mixture of ____ A and B is warmed in a water bath with the aldehyde, colour change from blue solution to brick red precipitate
Fehling's
Fehling's A contains the weak oxidising agent ____ 2+
copper/Cu
Fehling's B is an alkaline solution containing a ____ ligand
bidentate
the blue Cu2+ is reduced to Cu+ which are precipitate as copper (I) ____
oxide
____ reagent: silver mirror forms on the inner surface of the test tube
Tollen's
silver ions in the [Ag(NH3)2]+ ____ are reduced to elemental silver
complex
____ is used to reduce aldehydes and ketones back to alcohols
sodium tetrahydridoborate (III)
CN- from KCN can be added across the C=O bond in acidic conditions to form ____ (2-hydroxynitriles)
cyanohydrins
the cyanide ion is a ____ and is attracted to the partially positive carbon
nucleophile
a new C-C bond forms and a pair of electrons in the C=O bond move onto the oxygen atom giving it a ____ charge
negative
the new negative ion takes up a ____ from the solvent
proton
this is nucleophilic ____
addition
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