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Microbio Revision
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Last updated: October 29, 2024
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| First submitted | October 29, 2024 |
| Times taken | 21 |
| Average score | 5.5% | Report this quiz | Report |
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1. What can be a manifestation of Trichomonas vaginalis in males?
Frothy discharge
Painless ulcer
Dysuria
Vaginal irritation
2. Which of the following symptoms is associated with typhoid fever progression?
Erythema nodosum
Rapid onset of watery diarrhoea
Severe dehydration within 24 hours
Hepatosplenomegaly
3. What type of infection do neutrophils infiltrate the renal interstitium, leading to pyelonephritis?
Lymphatic infection
Descending infection
Ascending infection
Hematogenous infection
4. How is HPV primarily transmitted?
Contaminated food
Airborne droplets
Sexual contact and abrasions in skin
Vector-borne transmission
5. Which species of Shigella is primarily associated with watery diarrhoea?
Group A
Group B
Group D
Group C
6. Which of the following is a criterion for diagnosing bacterial vaginosis?
pH < 4.5
Positive whiff test
Thick, clumping discharge
Presence of leukocyte casts
7. Which clinical outcome is particularly associated with the presence of both the cagA and vacA genes in H.Pylori?
Gastric ulceration
MALT lymphoma
Pan-gastritis
Duodenal ulceration
8. Which syndrome is characterized by vomiting and abdominal cramps caused by Bacillus cereus?
Haemolytic syndrome
Toxic shock syndrome
Diarrhoeal syndrome
Emetic syndrome
9. What is a common diagnostic test for UTIs?
Ultrasound
Blood culture
Urinalysis
CT scan
10. What is the primary organism responsible for syphilis?
Treponema pallidum
Mycoplasma hominis
Chlamydia trachomatis
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
11. Where are anogenital warts most commonly distributed in females?
Glans penis
Penile shaft
Perineum, vagina, cervix
Labia, inner thigh
12. In diagnosing pyelonephritis, which finding is most indicative?
Presence of leukocyte casts
No urgency or dysuria
Negative urinalysis
Normal WBC count
13. Which of the following characteristics describes H.Pylori?
Gram-negative, aerobic, Urease +ve
Gram-positive, microaerophilic, Urease +ve
Gram-positive, aerobic, Urease -ve
Gram-negative, microaerophilic, Urease +ve
14. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of primary herpes simplex infection?
Fever
Dysuria
Punctate haemorrhages
Inguinal lymphadenopathy
15. Which symptom is commonly associated with cystitis?
Nausea and vomiting
Suprapubic pain
Fever and chills
Flank pain
16. How is Trichomonas vaginalis commonly diagnosed?
High vaginal swab
First-pass urine
Serological test
Blood test
17. What is the recommended treatment for a primary herpes simplex infection?
Trimethoprim
Ceftriaxone
Aciclovir
Metronidazole
18. Which Chlamydia trachomatis strain causes trachoma?
A-C
L
D-K
M-N
19. Which of the following characteristics describes Salmonella?
Gram -ve, non-lactose fermenting
Gram +ve, non-lactose fermenting
Gram -ve, lactose fermenting
Gram +ve, lactose fermenting
20. What is a common feature of bacterial vaginosis?
Frothy discharge
Painless ulcer
Fishy odor
Thin, white discharge
21. Which organism is commonly associated with catheter-related infections in hospitals?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Klebsiella pneumoniae
E. coli
22. What is the primary manifestation of HPV?
Flat warts
Epidermodysplasia verruciformis
Plantar warts
Anogenital warts
23. What is the recommended diagnostic method for Chlamydia infections?
High vaginal swab
Serology
PCR of lesion swab
First-pass urine
24. What is a key symptom of vulvovaginal candidiasis?
Fishy odor
Dysuria
Premature rupture of membranes
Thin, white discharge
25. Which of the following diagnostic methods is NOT useful for assessing eradication of H.Pylori?
Upper abdominal tenderness assessment
Faecal antigen test
Serology
Urea Breath test
26. What is one mode of transmission for H.Pylori ?
Faecal-oral transmission
Vector-borne transmission
Bloodborne transmission
Airborne transmission
27. What is the first-line treatment for anogenital warts?
Antiviral therapy
Oral antibiotics
Topical creams
Surgical excision
28. What is a significant risk factor for urinary tract infections (UTIs)?
Shorter urethra in females
Increased fluid intake
High oestrogen levels
Frequent urination
29. What is a key complication of Clostridium infection?
Pseudomembranous colitis
Reactive arthritis
Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome
Endocarditis
30. Which bacterium is known for producing urease and is often associated with kidney stones?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Proteus mirabilis
E. coli
31. Which of the following organisms is a Gram-negative, lactose-fermenting bacterium?
Proteus mirabilis
E. coli
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Klebsiella pneumoniae
32. What severe complication can result from non-typhoidal Salmonella bacteraemia?
Meningitis
Pneumonia
Reactive arthritis
Hepatosplenomegaly
33. What type of E. coli is a common cause of abrupt traveler's diarrhoea?
Enterotoxigenic (ETEC)
Enteropathogenic (EPEC)
Enteroaggregative (EAEC)
Enterohaemorrhagic (EHEC)
34. Which stage of syphilis is characterized by a painless ulcer?
Primary syphilis
Secondary syphilis
Latent syphilis
Tertiary syphilis
35. What syndrome should be monitored for in patients with Enterohaemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC)?
Reiter's Syndrome
Coeliac Disease
Toxic Shock Syndrome
Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome
36. Which HPV types are commonly associated with skin warts?
3, 6, 11
5, 8, 17
1, 2, 4
16, 18
37. What is a common symptom of anogenital warts in males?
Itching and burning
Fever
Flank pain
Vaginal discharge
38. What complication can result from untreated Chlamydia infection?
Herpes
Gonorrhea
Syphilis
Pelvic inflammatory disease
39. What is the primary mode of transmission for Listeria?
Contaminated food
Waterborne
Airborne
Vector-borne
40. What type of diarrhoea is primarily associated with cholera?
Watery diarrhoea
Large volumes of "Rice" water diarrhoea
Bloody diarrhoea
Persistent diarrhoea
41. What is a common presentation of gonorrhea in females?Fever and chills
Dysuria and intermenstrual bleeding
Pruritus and thick discharge
Fever and chills
Flank pain
42. What complication can arise from a herpes simplex virus infection?
HSV meningitis
Ectopic pregnancy
Bacterial vaginosis
Urinary tract obstruction
43. What is the primary clinical manifestation of Klebsiella granulomatis (Donovanosis)?
Thick, white discharge
Painful ulcer
Frothy discharge
Beefy, painless lesion
44. Which organism is known to mimic appendicitis in children due to ileocecitis?
Yersinia enterocolitica
Salmonella
Shigella
Campylobacter
45. What is the primary treatment for cystitis?
Gentamicin
Augmentin
Trimethoprim
Cefalexin
46. Which HPV type is most commonly linked to cervical cancer?
HPV 6
HPV 1
HPV 20
HPV 16
47. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
Flank pain
Cervical motion tenderness
Dyspareunia
Fever
48. Which complication is associated with Campylobacter infections?
Meningitis
Pseudomembranous colitis
Guillain-Barré syndrome
Toxic Shock Syndrome
49. What type of Salmonella infection primarily spreads from person to person?
Non-typhoidal Salmonella
Neither
Both non-typhoidal and typhoid
Typhoid Fever
50. What is a common condition associated with Staphylococcus saprophyticus?
Pyelonephritis
Yeast infections
Honeymoon cystitis
Kidney stones
51. Which organism is responsible for gonorrhoea?
Chlamydia trachomatis
Herpes simplex virus
Treponema pallidum
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
52. What is a complication associated with HPV infection?
Pneumonia
Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia
Myocarditis
Conjunctivitis
53. Which of the following pathophysiological mechanisms is associated with H. Pylori?
Inhibition of urea absorption
Release of ammonia that neutralizes gastric pH
Destruction of intestinal villi
Increase in gastric acid production
54. What is the primary treatment for severe disease caused by Shigella in immunocompromised patients?
Vancomycin
Ciprofloxacin
Ceftriaxone
Metronidazole
55. Which symptom is common in patients with non-typhoidal Salmonella infection?
Severe abdominal cramps
Watery stools
High fever
Skin rash
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