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Microbio Revision
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Last updated: October 29, 2024
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| First submitted | October 29, 2024 |
| Times taken | 21 |
| Average score | 5.5% | Report this quiz | Report |
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1. What can be a manifestation of Trichomonas vaginalis in males?
Dysuria
Painless ulcer
Vaginal irritation
Frothy discharge
2. Which of the following symptoms is associated with typhoid fever progression?
Hepatosplenomegaly
Rapid onset of watery diarrhoea
Erythema nodosum
Severe dehydration within 24 hours
3. What type of infection do neutrophils infiltrate the renal interstitium, leading to pyelonephritis?
Lymphatic infection
Hematogenous infection
Descending infection
Ascending infection
4. How is HPV primarily transmitted?
Sexual contact and abrasions in skin
Airborne droplets
Contaminated food
Vector-borne transmission
5. Which species of Shigella is primarily associated with watery diarrhoea?
Group B
Group C
Group D
Group A
6. Which of the following is a criterion for diagnosing bacterial vaginosis?
Positive whiff test
Thick, clumping discharge
pH < 4.5
Presence of leukocyte casts
7. Which clinical outcome is particularly associated with the presence of both the cagA and vacA genes in H.Pylori?
Pan-gastritis
Gastric ulceration
Duodenal ulceration
MALT lymphoma
8. Which syndrome is characterized by vomiting and abdominal cramps caused by Bacillus cereus?
Diarrhoeal syndrome
Haemolytic syndrome
Emetic syndrome
Toxic shock syndrome
9. What is a common diagnostic test for UTIs?
Ultrasound
CT scan
Urinalysis
Blood culture
10. What is the primary organism responsible for syphilis?
Mycoplasma hominis
Chlamydia trachomatis
Treponema pallidum
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
11. Where are anogenital warts most commonly distributed in females?
Penile shaft
Labia, inner thigh
Glans penis
Perineum, vagina, cervix
12. In diagnosing pyelonephritis, which finding is most indicative?
Presence of leukocyte casts
Negative urinalysis
No urgency or dysuria
Normal WBC count
13. Which of the following characteristics describes H.Pylori?
Gram-negative, aerobic, Urease +ve
Gram-negative, microaerophilic, Urease +ve
Gram-positive, microaerophilic, Urease +ve
Gram-positive, aerobic, Urease -ve
14. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of primary herpes simplex infection?
Fever
Dysuria
Inguinal lymphadenopathy
Punctate haemorrhages
15. Which symptom is commonly associated with cystitis?
Fever and chills
Flank pain
Suprapubic pain
Nausea and vomiting
16. How is Trichomonas vaginalis commonly diagnosed?
High vaginal swab
Serological test
First-pass urine
Blood test
17. What is the recommended treatment for a primary herpes simplex infection?
Aciclovir
Ceftriaxone
Trimethoprim
Metronidazole
18. Which Chlamydia trachomatis strain causes trachoma?
A-C
M-N
L
D-K
19. Which of the following characteristics describes Salmonella?
Gram -ve, non-lactose fermenting
Gram -ve, lactose fermenting
Gram +ve, non-lactose fermenting
Gram +ve, lactose fermenting
20. What is a common feature of bacterial vaginosis?
Fishy odor
Thin, white discharge
Frothy discharge
Painless ulcer
21. Which organism is commonly associated with catheter-related infections in hospitals?
E. coli
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Klebsiella pneumoniae
22. What is the primary manifestation of HPV?
Plantar warts
Flat warts
Epidermodysplasia verruciformis
Anogenital warts
23. What is the recommended diagnostic method for Chlamydia infections?
High vaginal swab
Serology
First-pass urine
PCR of lesion swab
24. What is a key symptom of vulvovaginal candidiasis?
Premature rupture of membranes
Fishy odor
Thin, white discharge
Dysuria
25. Which of the following diagnostic methods is NOT useful for assessing eradication of H.Pylori?
Serology
Urea Breath test
Upper abdominal tenderness assessment
Faecal antigen test
26. What is one mode of transmission for H.Pylori ?
Faecal-oral transmission
Airborne transmission
Bloodborne transmission
Vector-borne transmission
27. What is the first-line treatment for anogenital warts?
Oral antibiotics
Topical creams
Antiviral therapy
Surgical excision
28. What is a significant risk factor for urinary tract infections (UTIs)?
Increased fluid intake
High oestrogen levels
Frequent urination
Shorter urethra in females
29. What is a key complication of Clostridium infection?
Reactive arthritis
Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome
Pseudomembranous colitis
Endocarditis
30. Which bacterium is known for producing urease and is often associated with kidney stones?
Proteus mirabilis
E. coli
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
31. Which of the following organisms is a Gram-negative, lactose-fermenting bacterium?
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
Klebsiella pneumoniae
E. coli
Proteus mirabilis
32. What severe complication can result from non-typhoidal Salmonella bacteraemia?
Pneumonia
Reactive arthritis
Meningitis
Hepatosplenomegaly
33. What type of E. coli is a common cause of abrupt traveler's diarrhoea?
Enteroaggregative (EAEC)
Enteropathogenic (EPEC)
Enterohaemorrhagic (EHEC)
Enterotoxigenic (ETEC)
34. Which stage of syphilis is characterized by a painless ulcer?
Latent syphilis
Tertiary syphilis
Secondary syphilis
Primary syphilis
35. What syndrome should be monitored for in patients with Enterohaemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC)?
Toxic Shock Syndrome
Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome
Reiter's Syndrome
Coeliac Disease
36. Which HPV types are commonly associated with skin warts?
3, 6, 11
5, 8, 17
16, 18
1, 2, 4
37. What is a common symptom of anogenital warts in males?
Fever
Flank pain
Vaginal discharge
Itching and burning
38. What complication can result from untreated Chlamydia infection?
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Syphilis
Gonorrhea
Herpes
39. What is the primary mode of transmission for Listeria?
Airborne
Vector-borne
Waterborne
Contaminated food
40. What type of diarrhoea is primarily associated with cholera?
Persistent diarrhoea
Watery diarrhoea
Bloody diarrhoea
Large volumes of "Rice" water diarrhoea
41. What is a common presentation of gonorrhea in females?Fever and chills
Pruritus and thick discharge
Flank pain
Dysuria and intermenstrual bleeding
Fever and chills
42. What complication can arise from a herpes simplex virus infection?
HSV meningitis
Ectopic pregnancy
Bacterial vaginosis
Urinary tract obstruction
43. What is the primary clinical manifestation of Klebsiella granulomatis (Donovanosis)?
Thick, white discharge
Painful ulcer
Frothy discharge
Beefy, painless lesion
44. Which organism is known to mimic appendicitis in children due to ileocecitis?
Shigella
Campylobacter
Salmonella
Yersinia enterocolitica
45. What is the primary treatment for cystitis?
Cefalexin
Augmentin
Trimethoprim
Gentamicin
46. Which HPV type is most commonly linked to cervical cancer?
HPV 16
HPV 6
HPV 20
HPV 1
47. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
Flank pain
Dyspareunia
Fever
Cervical motion tenderness
48. Which complication is associated with Campylobacter infections?
Pseudomembranous colitis
Guillain-Barré syndrome
Toxic Shock Syndrome
Meningitis
49. What type of Salmonella infection primarily spreads from person to person?
Neither
Typhoid Fever
Both non-typhoidal and typhoid
Non-typhoidal Salmonella
50. What is a common condition associated with Staphylococcus saprophyticus?
Pyelonephritis
Kidney stones
Yeast infections
Honeymoon cystitis
51. Which organism is responsible for gonorrhoea?
Treponema pallidum
Herpes simplex virus
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Chlamydia trachomatis
52. What is a complication associated with HPV infection?
Pneumonia
Myocarditis
Conjunctivitis
Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia
53. Which of the following pathophysiological mechanisms is associated with H. Pylori?
Destruction of intestinal villi
Inhibition of urea absorption
Release of ammonia that neutralizes gastric pH
Increase in gastric acid production
54. What is the primary treatment for severe disease caused by Shigella in immunocompromised patients?
Vancomycin
Metronidazole
Ceftriaxone
Ciprofloxacin
55. Which symptom is common in patients with non-typhoidal Salmonella infection?
Watery stools
High fever
Severe abdominal cramps
Skin rash
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